Answer:
$2,248,660
Explanation:
According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follows,
Particulars Amount
Retained Earning $682,100
Correction of repairs expense (Add) $89,160
Net income (Add) $1,558,700
Dividend Paid (Less) $81,300
Net retained earning $2,248,660
Answer and Explanation:
The computation is shown below:
1, The cost of debt before tax is
Given that
NPER = 10%
PMT - $1,000 × 7% = $70
PV = $886
FV = $1,000
The formula is given below:
= RATE(NPER;PMT;-PV;FV;TYPE)
After applying the above formula, the before tax cost of debt is 8.76%
2. The after tax cost of debt is
= 8.76% × (1 - 0.30)
= 6.13%
3. The total equity is
= $20 per share × 2million shares
= $40 million
4. The cost of equity is
= Risk free rate of return + Beta × (Market rate of return - risk free rate)
= 4% + 1.2 × (9% - 4%)
= 10%
5. The weight of debt is
= ($886 × 20 ÷ $1,000 ) ÷ (886 × 20 ÷ $1,000 + $40)
= 30.70%
6. The WACC is
= Weight of debt × after tax cost of debt + weight of equity × cost of equity
= 30.70% × 6.13% + (1 - 0.3070) × 10%
= 8.81%
The answer to this question is "loan out".
A goldsmith could hold some gold in reserve for depositor's withdrawals, but "LOAN OUT" excess gold and thereby make a profit from the depositor's funds. This loan out is also refer to the long term financing.
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "D": multiple systematic risk factors.
Explanation:
The Arbitrage Pricing Theory or APT weights the influence of different macroeconomic factors on an asset return. If the asset's price is different than the model's projection an opportunistic investor can buy and sell the asset for a profit. Those macroeconomic factors can include economic output, unemployment, inflation, savings or investments-specific considerations and they capture systematic risk.
