Answer:
These are the options for the question:
A. Segmentation
B. Cannibalization
C. Market penetration
D. Product bundling
And this is the correct answer:
B) Cannibalization
Explanation:
Cannibalization occurs when a newly introduced product reduces the market share of previous products.
In this case, the pocket-friendly combo meals have effectively made the rest of the menu unattractive to customers, it has cannibalized the other meals.
This effect is refer to as cannibalization, because as the original meaning refers to a hostile act withing the same species, in marketing, this effect occurs among products within the same company.
Answer:
The answer is :
A. Resource market - income
B. Expenditure - product market.
Explanation:
A. Resource market - income
B. Expenditure - product market
The circular flow model shows how money moves through the economy in exchange for goods, services, and resources.
A.
In circular flow of income, households provide inputs to firms through the resource market(matket where households supply land, labor, capital, and entrepreneurship) in exchange for money(income or wages).
B.
Also in circular flow of income, firms receives expenditure from household and this type of market is called product market(which refers to a place where goods and services are bought and sold)
Answer and Explanation:
The computation is shown below:
Debt = D ÷ (E + D)
= 0.8 ÷ (1 + 0.8)
= 0.4444
Now
Weight of equity = 1 - Debt
= 1 - 0.4444
= 0.5556
As per Dividend discount model
Price = Dividend in 1 year ÷ (cost of equity - growth rate)
40 = $2 ÷ (Cost of equity - 0.06)
Cost of equity = 11%
Cost of debt
K = N
Let us assume the par value be $1,000
Bond Price =∑ [(Annual Coupon) ÷ (1 + YTM)^k] + Par value ÷ (1 + YTM)^N
k=1
K =25
$804 =∑ [(7 × $1000 ÷ 100)/(1 + YTM ÷ 100)^k] + $1000 ÷ (1 + YTM ÷ 100)^25
k=1
YTM = 9
After tax cost of debt = cost of debt × (1 - tax rate)
= 9 × (1 - 0.21)
= 7.11
WACC = after tax cost of debt × W(D) + cost of equity ×W(E)
= 7.11 × 0.4444 + 11 × 0.5556
= 9.27%
As we can see that the WACC is lower than the return so it should be undertake the expansion
Answer:
The net present value (NPV) of this investment is C) $10,048
Explanation:
Net present value (NPV) is the value of the future cash flows over the entire life of an investment discounted to the present.
The firm invests $95,000 today that will yield $109,250 in one year. The interest rates of the investment are 4%. The net present value (NPV) of this investment:
NPV = $109,250/(1+4%) - $95,000 = $10,048
