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4 years ago

Can more than one triangle be drawn with side

Mathematics

1 answer:

Mashutka [201]4 years ago

4 0

Answer: No .

Step-by-step explanation:

If we make two triangles with lengths of 4 centimeters and 2 centimeters and an included angle of 50°, then by SAS congruence postulate both triangle will be congruent.

According to the definition of congruence , if two shapes are congruent then they have equal size and shape.

i.e. they look exactly same.

It means only one triangle is possible with the given measurement .

SAS congruence rule : It says that if two sides and the included angle of a triangle are congruent to two sides and the included angle of another triangle, then we can say that these two triangles are congruent.

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8{(5*3)+(2*5)+(2*10)=

DerKrebs [107]

Answer:

8(5*3)+(2*5)+(2*10)=360

Step-by-step explanation:

8(15)+(10)+(20)=

8(45)=

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Explain why the negation of “Some students in my class use e-mail” is not “Some students in my class do not use e-mail”.

Olenka [21]

Answer with Step-by-step explanation:

Since we have given that

Some students in my class use e-mail.

It is a type of 'E' statements.

Its negation should be No students in my class use e-mail.

Because if we use "Some students in my class do not use e-mail”.

It also implies some students in my class still use e-mail.

But negation contains only opposite of given statement.

So, Some students in my class do not use e-mail” is not true.

6 0

4 years ago

Why is an elephant so wrinkled

egoroff_w [7]

Answer:

I have no idea

Step-by-step explanation:

but they beautiul and give good luck

7 0

3 years ago

IF 15 CHOCOLATE COST 10 RUPEES THEN HOW MUCH DOES 1 CHOCOLATE COSTS.

Blababa [14]

Answer:

2/3 Rupees

Step-by-step explanation:

Lets say Chocolate is C and a rupee is R.

Then, 15C = 10R. We can simplify to 3C = 2R. Now we divide both sides by Three to get C = 2/3R, which means a chocolate is 2/3 of a rupee!

8 0

2 years ago

Baxter is thinking about buying a car. The table below shows the projected value of two different cars for three years.

MAVERICK [17]

Answer:

A) car 1: exponential

car 2: linear

B) car 1: $f(x)=18500(0.94)^{x-1}$

car 2: $f(x)=-1000x+19500$

C) Yes, there will be a significant difference of $1,100.40 which is approx 10% of the value of the cars after 10 years.

Step-by-step explanation:

Part A

Car 1: exponential as the projected value is not decreasing by the same amount each year

Car 2: linear as the projected value decreases by the same amount each year ($1000)

Part B

Car 1

General form of exponential function: $y=ab^x$

a = initial value = 18500

b = growth factor = $\dfrac{17390}{18500}=0.94$

$\implies f(x)=18500(0.94)^{x-1}$

NB We have to change x to "x-1" since we are told in the table that after 1 year the car's value is 18500.

Car 2

General form of linear function: $y=mx+b$

$m=\dfrac{\textsf{change in} \ y}{\textsf{change in} \ x}=\dfrac{17500-18500}{2-1}=-1000$

$y-y_1=m(x-x_1)$

$\implies y-17500=-1000(x-2)$

$\implies f(x)=-1000x+19500$

Part C

Car 1 after 10 years: $\implies f(10)=18500(0.94)^{10-1}=\$10,600.40$

Car 2 after 10 years: $\implies f(10)=-1000(10)+19500=\$9,500$

Difference = 10600.40 - 9500 = 1100.40

Yes, there will be a significant difference of $1,100.40 which is approx 10% of the value of the cars after 10 years.

6 0

2 years ago