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olasank [31]
4 years ago
7

Lanny's credit card has an APR of 33%, calculated on the previous monthly

Mathematics
1 answer:
mr_godi [17]4 years ago
5 0

Description:

x^2 to mean x squared

f(x) = x^2+3x-10

f(x+5) = (x+5)^2+3(x+5)-10 replace every x with x+5

f(x+5) = (x^2+10x+25)+3(x+5)-10

f(x+5) = x^2+10x+25+3x+15-10

f(x+5) =x^2+13x+30

Compare this with x^2+kx+30 and we see that k = 13

Factor and solve the equation below

x^2+13x+30 = 0

(x+10)(x+3) = 0

x+10 = 0 or x+3 = 0

x = -10 or x = -3

The smallest zero is x = -10 as its the left-most value on a number line

Answer: k = 13The smallest zero or root is x = -10

Please mark brainliest

<em><u>Hope this helps.</u></em>

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Does anybody know how to do question 2 please show working out
Natalija [7]
2a.
Since BC = 10m and M is the midpoint, we can find CM by : 10÷2 = 5m
So, CM = 5m

2b. Now, you have the base ( 5m) & hypotenuse (13m). Pythagoras' Theorem:

c {}^{2}  =  {a}^{2}  +  {b}^{2}
Where c is the hypotenuse, a & b are sides.

{13}^{2}  =  {5}^{2}  + b {}^{2}  \\  {5}^{2}  +  {b}^{2}  = 13 {}^{2}  \\  {b}^{2}  = 13 {}^{2}  -  {5}^{2}  \\ b =  \sqrt{144}  \\ b = 12
b here refers to the height.

2c.
Area of a right-angled triangle =
\frac{base \times height}{2}
So,
\frac{10 \times 12}{2} \\  = 60 {m}^{2}
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Use the diagram to complete the statements.
Ksenya-84 [330]

Answer: The answers are: 3, 4, point R to point Q, depression from point Q to point R

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
1. Using the formula for the probability of one event or another event, calculate the probability of drawing a card from a stand
ddd [48]
A standard deck has 52 cards.
A standard deck has 4 jacks.
A standard deck has 13 clubs.

From this, we can derive the following:
The probability of drawing a jack is 4/52 or 1/13
The probability of drawing a club is 13/52 or 1/4

But since the problem asks for drawing jack or club, therefore we should add the 2 probabilities, making 17/52. This is not the final answer yet. We know that there is a jack of clubs, therefore we need to subtract 1 from the probabilities since jack of clubs were considered in the 2 categories of probability.

With that being said, the probability of drawing a club or a jack is 16/52 or 4/13

Bonus Question:

The first thing you need to do here is find the probability of each scenario. First let's do what is given, the probability of drawing 2 aces. Since there are 4 aces in a deck of 52, we can easily say that the probability of drawing an ace is 4/52. However for our second draw, the probability of drawing a different ace is 3/51. This is so since we already drew a card that is an ace, hence we need to subtract one from the total aces (4-1) and from the total cards in the deck (52-1). In getting the probability of drawing two aces, we need to multiply the said probabilities: 4/52 and 3/51, resulting to 1/221.

For the second scenario, the drawing of 2 red cards, we just use the same concept but in this, we are already considering the 2 red cards in the first scenario, therefore the chance of drawing a red on our first draw is 24/52. For our second, we just need to subtract one card, therefore 23/51. Multiply these two and we will get 46/221.

Now, the problem asks for the chance of drawing either 2 reds or 2 aces, therefore we add the probabilities of the 2 scenarios:
46/222 + 1/221 = 47/221

Summary:
First Scenario:
4/52 + 3/51 = 1/221
Second Scenario:
24/52 + 23/51 = 46/221
Chances of drawing 2 red cards or 2 aces:
1/221 + 46/221 = 47/221
7 0
3 years ago
EXAMPLE 2 Prove that 9ex is equal to the sum of its Maclaurin series. SOLUTION If f(x) = 9ex, then f (n + 1)(x) = for all n. If
amm1812

Answer:

To Prove: 9e^x is equal to the sum of its Maclaurin series.

Step-by-step explanation:

If f(x) = 9e^x, then f ^{(n + 1)(x)} =9e^x for all n. If d is any positive number and   |x| ≤ d, then |f^{(n + 1)(x)}| = 9e^x\leq  9e^d.

So Taylor's Inequality, with a = 0 and M = 9e^d, says that |R_n(x)| \leq \dfrac{9e^d}{(n+1)!} |x|^{n + 1} \:for\: |x| \leq  d.

Notice that the same constant M = 9e^d works for every value of n.

But, since lim_{n\to\infty}\dfrac{x^n}{n!} =0 $ for every real number x$,

We have lim_{n\to\infty} \dfrac{9e^d}{(n+1)!} |x|^{n + 1} =9e^d lim_{n\to\infty} \dfrac{|x|^{n + 1}}{(n+1)!} =0

It follows from the Squeeze Theorem that lim_{n\to\infty} |R_n(x)|=0 and therefore lim_{n\to\infty} R_n(x)=0 for all values of x.

THEOREM\\If f(x)=T_n(x)+R_n(x), $where $T_n $is the nth degree Taylor Polynomial of f at a and  $ lim_{n\to\infty} R_n(x)=0 \:  for \: |x-a|

By this theorem above, 9e^x is equal to the sum of its Maclaurin series, that is,

9e^x=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{9x^n}{n!}  for all x.

6 0
3 years ago
Can someone help me please
kherson [118]

Answer:

c = 72

Step-by-step explanation:

multiply both sides of the equation by 8 to eliminate the fraction

c = 8 × 9 = 72

note that \frac{72}{8} = 9


5 0
3 years ago
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