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NeTakaya
3 years ago
14

8x · 1 = 8x

Mathematics
1 answer:
koban [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Hi there!

Your answer is:

B. Identity property

Step-by-step explanation:

The multiplicative identity property of 1, any number multiplied by 1, gives the same result as the number itself. It is also called the Identity property of multiplication, because the identity of the number remains the same

Hope this helps!

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MaRussiya [10]

Answer:

120

Step-by-step explanation:

the answer yOU are looking for would be 120

8 0
3 years ago
Find dy/dx by implicit differentiation.
kow [346]

dy/dx by implicit differentiation is cos(πx)/sin(πy)

<h3>How to find dy/dx by implicit differentiation?</h3>

Since we have the equation

(sin(πx) + cos(πy)⁸ = 17, to find dy/dx, we differentiate implicitly.

So, [(sin(πx) + cos(πy)⁸ = 17]

d[(sin(πx) + cos(πy)⁸]/dx = d17/dx

d[(sin(πx) + cos(πy)⁸]/dx = 0

Let sin(πx) + cos(πy) = u

So, du⁸/dx = 0

du⁸/du × du/dx = 0

Since,

  • du⁸/du = 8u⁷ and
  • du/dx = d[sin(πx) + cos(πy)]/dx

= dsin(πx)/dx + dcos(πy)/dx

= dsin(πx)/dx + (dcos(πy)/dy × dy/dx)

= πcos(πx) - πsin(πy) × dy/dx

So, du⁸/dx = 0

du⁸/du × du/dx = 0

8u⁷ × [ πcos(πx) - πsin(πy) × dy/dx] = 0

8[(sin(πx) + cos(πy)]⁷ ×  (πcos(πx) - πsin(πy) × dy/dx) = 0

Since 8[(sin(πx) + cos(πy)]⁷ ≠ 0

(πcos(πx) - πsin(πy) × dy/dx) = 0

πcos(πx) = πsin(πy) × dy/dx

dy/dx = πcos(πx)/πsin(πy)

dy/dx = cos(πx)/sin(πy)

So, dy/dx by implicit differentiation is cos(πx)/sin(πy)

Learn more about implicit differentiation here:

brainly.com/question/25081524

#SPJ1

6 0
2 years ago
Do you guys know this? 82 − − 33 = 35
jenyasd209 [6]

um...

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
2 years ago
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Solve the following system of equations.<br> y = 2x + 1<br> y = x2 – 5x + 7
BlackZzzverrR [31]

The answer is x = 2 and y = 3

5 0
3 years ago
How do you set up the combined probability of selecting a yellow hair clip, putting it back and then selecting a blue hair clip
Olegator [25]

Answer:

By separating

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
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