Answer:
D.) I. and II
I. Workers are paid very low wages in both systems.
II. Both are prevalent in underdeveloped nations.
Explanation:
maquiladora can be regarded as mode of manufacturing that is associated to countries such as Mexico, which is been at up by a foreign company, and it involves export of the manufactured goods out of that country to the origin country of the company. There are some benefits for the factory such as
duty-free as well as tariff-free imports of raw materials. sweatshop can be regarded as sweat factory, it is a crowded workplace that has socially unacceptable as well as
very poor and illegal working conditions. Employees in sweatshops usually have work long hours and petty pay.
It should be noted that maquiladoras similar to sweatshops in ways such was ;
✓Workers are paid very low wages in both systems.
✓Both are prevalent in underdeveloped nations.
Answer: 399,055 patents hope this helps
Explanation:
Explanation:
The adjusting entry is as follows
Insurance expense A/c Dr $4,800
To Prepaid insurance A/c $4,800
(Being the insurance expense is recorded)
The computation is shown below:
= Beginning balance + debited amount - unexpired insurance amount
= $6,600 + $2,300 - $4,100
= $4,800
So while preparing the adjusting entry, we debited the insurance expense account and credited the prepaid insurance account
Answer:
The answer is $330,000
Explanation:
Cash paid to suppliers is the total amount of cash paid to its creditors.
We can find that through:
Cost of sold
Minus: Decrease in inventory
Plus: Decrease in accounts payable
=Cash paid to suppliers.
Now let's start:
Cost of sold - $450,000
Decrease in inventory - $160,000
Decrease in accounts payable- $40,000
$450,000 - $160,000 + $40,000
=$330,000
Therefore, Cash paid to suppliers is $330,000
Answer:
PV= $9,355.78
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
If $ 9,000 is invested in a certain business at the start of the year, the investor will receive $ 2,700 at the end of each of the next four years.
Interest rate= 6%.
First, we need to find the final value
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= payment
FV= {2,700*[(1.06^4)-1]}/0.06= 11,811.46
Now, we calculate the present value:
PV= FV/(1+i)^n
PV= 11,811.46/1.06^4= $9,355.78
