Answer:$23598000
Explanation:
14.8% of 171,000,000= 25,308,000
Less 1% of 171,000,000= 1,710,000
= ......... .
Answer:
$44,592
Explanation:
The book value of a building = Cost Price - Accumulated Depreciation
= $(251,060 - 109,510)
= $141,550
The present value of the non-interest-bearing note due on January 1, 2023 (or Discounted Cash Flow) =
FV/(1+i)^t
= $241,060/(1+0.09)^3
= $241,060/1.29503
= $186,142
Gain on Sale of the building = $(186,142 - 141,550) = $44,592
The entry to record this event would include a LOSS OF $40,000.
The equipment original cost = $420,000
Accumulated depreciation = $200,000
Selling price = $180,000
Loss = 180,000 - [420,000 - 200,000]
= 180,000 - 220 = - 40,000
Thus, a loss of $40,000 was experienced in the sale of the equipment.
Answer:
The correct answer is b. increases.
Explanation:
In a market that works as perfect competition (according to Microeconomics), an increase in demand (and the consequent decrease in inventories of producers) leads producers to increase their sales prices of their products, in order to also increase its level of production, until it equals demand (since at higher prices demand decreases) and this causes the market to balance, this is called economic equilibrium. In a competitive economy, producers can only increase their level of production if the sales prices of their products rise, the reason is that production costs increase with volume.
Excess demand occurs when there are imperfections in the market (such as when the Government sets maximum sales prices, at a price below the market equilibrium price) and for this reason the market does not reach equilibrium, where the quantity demanded and offered of the product are equal. When a market is in excess demand, the quantity demanded by consumers is greater than the quantity supplied by sellers, this causes the inventories of the producers to fall and they cannot increase their production.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
To illustrate how the sum-of-the-digits method allocates interest we can use a lease example:
You are the lessor and you will lease a machine during 4 years. The lease requires 4 equal payments of $100,000 at the beginning of the year. After the lease, the asset's salvage value = $0.
The asset's current value = $300,000, so total interests received = $100,000
Using the sum-of-the-digits method, you will allocate interest as follows:
- year 1 = 3/6 x $100,000 = $50,000
- year 2 = 2/6 x $100,000 = $33,333
- year 3 = 1/6 x $100,000 = $17,000
The largest portion of interests is allocated during the beginning of the loan.
