Answer:
This is easy -- it's just a list of steps. At this level, the problems are pretty simple.
Let's just do one, then I'll write out the list of steps for you.
Find the inverse of f( x ) = -( 1 / 3 )x + 1
STEP 1: Stick a "y" in for the "f(x)" guy:
y = -( 1 / 3 )x + 1
STEP 2: Switch the x and y
( because every (x, y) has a (y, x) partner! ):
x = -( 1 / 3 )y + 1
STEP 3: Solve for y:
x = -( 1 / 3 )y + 1 ... multiply by 3 to ditch the fraction ... 3x = -y + 3 ... ditch the +3 ... subtract 3 from both sides ... 3x - 3 = -y ... multiply by -1 ... -3x + 3 = y ... y = -3x + 3
STEP 4: Stick in the inverse notation, f^( -1 )( x )
f^( -1 )( x ) = -3x + 3
Step-by-step explanation:
<h3>
Answer:</h3>
y = x - 5
<h3>
Step-by-step explanation:</h3>
If 5 is being subtracted from x, then it would look like x-5.
Since x-5 represents 5 being subtracted from x, y=x-5 is the correct answer because the other options aren't representing 5 subtracted from x.
Can you please add a picture of the problem or type all the measurements and information?
Answer:
5/32
Step-by-step explanation:
If a coin if flipped five times with four heads, then it has exactly one tail. The number of way to arrange four heads and one tail are as follows:
T H H H H
H T H H H
H H T H H
H H H T H
H H H H T
Essentially, there are five way because there are five "positions" where the tail could be.
Then, you need to find the total amount of possibilities for flipping a coin five times. Every time you flip it, there are two possibilities- heads and tails. Therefore, for five flips, the total amount of possibilities is
2x2x2x2x2 = 32
You know that
probability= # of desired outcome
----------------------------------
# of total outcomes
So the probablity is 5/32.
Answer:
No
Step-by-step explanation:
Because 39 is prime and is not divisible by any numbers
