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Simora [160]
4 years ago
7

How do U do #30.....

Mathematics
1 answer:
goldenfox [79]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:


The Y values RANGE from -9 through 9, so the range is 18


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The probability that you win at least $1 both times is 0.25 = 25%.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each game, there are only two possible outcomes. Either you win at least $1, or you do not. Games are independent. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

Probability of winning at least $1 on a single game:

The die has 6 sides.

If it lands on 4, 5 or 6(either of the three sides), you win at least $1. So

p = \frac{1}{2} = 0.5

You are going to play the game twice.

This means that n = 2

The probability that you win at least $1 both times is

This is P(X = 2).

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 2) = C_{2,2}.(0.5)^{2}.(0.5)^{2} = 0.25

The probability that you win at least $1 both times is 0.25 = 25%.

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p=q+4
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q=0,p=4
(q,p)
(0,4)
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Step-by-step explanation:

I got it right on my test

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