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Olin [163]
4 years ago
15

If a bank deposit will double in value in 18 years, the rule of 72 implies that the interest rate on the deposit must equal is a

pproximately:
a. 3 percent.
b. 4 percent
c. 6 percent
d. 8 percent
Business
1 answer:
arlik [135]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

b. 4 percent

Explanation:

According to the rule of 72, hte number of years required for an investment to be doubled can be obtained by dividing 72 by the interest rate (in percentage). If it takes 18 years for the investment to bouble in value, the interest rate is:

18=\frac{72}{i}\\i=4\%

The interest rate on the deposit is 4%.

You might be interested in
When treasury stock is purchased for an amount greater than its par, what is the effect on total shareholders' equity?
fomenos

When treasury stock is purchased for an amount greater than its par then the total shareholders' equity decreases.

Given that the treasury stock is purchased for an amount greater than its par.

We are required to find the effect of the purchase of treasury stock for an amount greater than its par on the total shareholders' equity.

Treasury stock is basically known as treasury shares or reacquired stock, and refers to previously outstanding stock that is bought back from stockholders by the issuing company. The result of issuing treasury stock is that the total number of outstanding shares on the open market decreases. Shares of a company are a part of total shareholders' equity and because shares are issued for security, it will decrease the total shareholders;equity.

Hence when treasury stock is purchased for an amount greater than its par then the total shareholders' equity decreases.

Learn more about treasury stock at brainly.com/question/17439058

#SPJ4

8 0
2 years ago
The following data (in millions) are taken from the financial statements of Target Corporation: Recent Year Prior Year Revenue $
Sliva [168]

Answer:

1.88%  and $1,339

Explanation:

The computation of the amount of change revenue is shown below:-

Amount of change revenue = Recent year - prior year

= $72,618 - $71,279

= $1,339

Percentage of change revenue = (Recent year - prior year) ÷ Prior years

= ($72,618 - $71,279) ÷ $71,279

= $1,339 ÷ $71,279

= 1.88%

We simply applied the above formulas

8 0
3 years ago
ANSWER ONLY IF YOU KNOW
leva [86]
Answer:
True

Monetary policy is the control of the quantity of money available in an economy and the channels by which new money is supplied
3 0
2 years ago
Lewis Company had the following transactions involving notes payable.
Fiesta28 [93]

Answer and Explanation:

The journal entries are shown below

1. Cash Dr $50,500

        To Note payable $50,500

(Being the amount borrowed is recorded)                    

2. Cash Dr $61,200

        To Note payable $61,200

(Being the amount borrowed is recorded)          

3. Interest expense $2,020

         To Interest payable $2,020

(Being the interest expense is recorded)

The computation is shown below:

= $50,500 × 8% × 6 months ÷ 12 months

= $2,020        

4. Interest expense $612

         To Interest payable $612

(Being the interest expense is recorded)

The computation is shown below:

= $61,200 × 6% × 2 months ÷ 12 months

= $612    

5. Note payable $61,200

    Interest expense $306

   Interest payable $612

          To Cash $62,118       ($61,200 + $918)

(Being the principal and the interest is recorded)

= $61,200 × 6% × 3 months ÷ 12 months

= $2,020

5. Note payable $50,500

    Interest expense $1,010

   Interest payable $2,020

          To Cash $62,118       ($50,500 + $3,030)

(Being the principal and the interest is recorded)

= $50,500 × 8% × 9 months ÷ 12 months

= $3,030

8 0
3 years ago
Should a firm shut down if its weekly revenue is ​$1 comma 000​, its variable cost is ​$600​, and its fixed cost is ​$800​, of w
kifflom [539]

Answer: The correct answer is "C. produce because revenue of ​$1 comma 000 is greater than fixed costs.".

Explanation: The firm should produce because the revenue of 1000 is enough to cover the fixed costs and part of the variables (1000 - 800 - 600 = (-400)) so that the loss is less than if it stopped producing despite the avoidable costs (800 - 350 = 450) since if it stopped producing it would have a loss of $ 450 and producing it would have a loss of $ 400.

7 0
3 years ago
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