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professor190 [17]

3 years ago

10

The correlation coefficient for practicing violin and getting better grades in a group of people is 0.8. Analyze the following s

tatement.
Playing violin causes students to get better grades.

Is this a reasonable conclusion?

Yes; students who play violin must necessarily get better grades

Yes; the correlation coefficient is above 0.5, so that implies causation

No; playing violin and earning better grades are completely unrelated

No; even though there is a strong positive correlation, playing violin doesn't cause students to get better grades

2 answers:

kobusy [5.1K]3 years ago

3 0

Answer: No; even though there is a strong positive correlation, playing violin doesn't cause students to get better grades

Step-by-step explanation:

Causation describes a relationship between two quantities where one quantity is effected by the other.

Given: The correlation coefficient for practicing violin and getting better grades in a group of people is 0.8.

Since 0.8 is near to 1, hence it shows a strong correlation.

But correlation does not imply causation because if just two quantities correlate does not necessarily means that one causes the other.

Hence, the given conclusion is not reasonable .

pogonyaev3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

OPTION D: No; even though there is a strong positive correlation, playing violin doesn't cause students to get better grades.

Step-by-step explanation: I got it right on the test.

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Answer:

x = π/2, 7π/6, or 11π/6

Step-by-step explanation:

sin² x − cos² x − sin x = 0

Use Pythagorean identity to write cosine in terms of sine.

sin² x − (1 − sin² x) − sin x = 0

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Read 2 more answers

Suppose the distribution of home sales prices has mean k300, 000 and standard

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<u>Given</u>:

Mean,

$\mu = 300,000$

Standard deviation,

$\sigma = 50,000$

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i.e., $P(|X - \mu| < k \sigma ) \geq 1-\frac{1}{k^2}$

(i)

⇒ $1-\frac{1}{k^2} = 0.75$

$k = 2$

The lower limit will be:

= $\mu - k \sigma$

= $300000-2\times 50000$

= $200000$

The upper limit will be:

= $\mu + k \sigma$

= $300000+2\times 50000$

= $400000$

hence,

The 75% houses sold are between:

⇒ (200000, 400000)

(ii)

⇒ $\mu -k \sigma = Lower \ limit$

By putting the values, we get

$300000-50000k = 150000$

$300000-150000=50000k$

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$k=\frac{150000}{50000}$

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$=\frac{8}{9}$

$=0.8888$

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hence,

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(iii)

⇒ $\mu - k \sigma = Lower \ limit$

By putting the values, we get

$300000-50000k = 170000$

$300000-170000=50000 k$

$130000= 50000 k$

$k = \frac{130000}{50000}$

$=2.6$

now,

⇒ $1-\frac{1}{k^2} = 1-\frac{1}{2.6^2}$

$=0.8521$

$=85.21$ (%)

hence,

85.21% houses are sold between 170000 and 430000.

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Solution :

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$q-2+2q^2=0$

$2q^2+q-2=0$

$2q^2+q-2=0$

Using quadratic formula,

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