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AnnyKZ [126]
2 years ago
13

EP Enterprises has the following income statement. How much net operating profit after taxes (NOPAT) does the firm have?

Business
1 answer:
mezya [45]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

Given that,

Sales = $ 2,000.00

Costs = 1,400.00

Depreciation = 250.00

EBIT = $ 350.00

Interest expense = 70.00

EBT = $280.00

Taxes (25%) = 112.00

Net income = $168.00

Net operating profit after taxes (NOPAT):

= EBIT × (1 - tax rate)

= $350 × (1 - 25%)

= $350 × 0.75

= $262.50

Therefore, the net operating profit after taxes (NOPAT) is $262.5.

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Omega Company reported the following information for the company's two products: Product X Product Y Selling price per unit $ 35
Elena L [17]

Answer:

Omega Company

B) Product Y should be produced because it will produce greater total profit.

Explanation:

If only Product X is produced, the total profit it will produced is:

Selling price = $35

Variable Cost = $20

Contribution = $15

Total Contribution = $15 x 75,000/4 = $281,250

If only Product Y is produced, the total profit will be:

Selling price = $25

Variable cost = $15

Contribution = $10

Total Contribution = $10 x 75,000/2 = $375,000

Product Y therefore produces a greater total profit.  This is because the fixed cost will remain the same if there are no avoidable elements.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Ames, Inc., has $1 million of notes payable due June 15, Year 2. At the financial statement date of December 31, Year 1, Ames si
Delvig [45]

Answer: B. $40,000, $960,000

Explanation:

The long term obligation will be 80% of the collateral value which will be:

= 80% × $1.2 million

= 0.8 × $1,200,000

= $960,000.

Therefore, the short term obligation will be:

= $1,000,000 - $960,000

= $40,000

7 0
2 years ago
Rhonda has an adjusted basis and an at-risk amount of $25,600 in a passive activity at the beginning of the year. She also has a
aliya0001 [1]

Answer:

a) Ending adjusted basis and at-risk amount $ 0

(b)The current passive loss is $12,000. Because $7,500 of the loss is used to reduce

the at-risk amount to $0, $4,500 is suspended under the at-risk rules ($12,000 − $7,500 = $4,500).

(c) The $7,500 loss that is not limited by the at-risk rules is subject to the passive loss

rules. Because the taxpayer has not generated any passive income during the year, this $7,500 current-year passive loss is suspended. Therefore, the total suspended passive loss carried forward to subsequent years totals $9,000 ($7,500 current-year suspended loss + $1,500 prior year suspended loss).

Explanation:

5 0
2 years ago
From 2001 to 2004, the U.S. government went from a budget surplus to a budget deficit. According to the open-economy macroeconom
notsponge [240]

Answer: Option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

Correct Option: The supply of loanable funds but not the supply of dollars in the market for foreign-currency exchange.

If the budget deficit increases, then U.S residents will want to purchase fewer foreign assets and foreign residents wants to buy more of U.S assets.

The budget deficit in the economy has to be financed either by borrowing or by increasing taxes. This budget deficit occurred because of the tax cuts and higher government spending.

If a country running a budget deficit, which lead to reduction in national saving. We all know that interest rate is determined in the loan market, where savers supply the loans to the private borrowers.

So, if there is a fall in the national saving, this will reduced the supply of loans from savers, which raises the interest rate in an economy.

This will attract the foreign flow of capital. This means that demand for domestic assets increases because of the higher interest rate.

Now, if foreign residents want to take an advantage of higher interest rate then they first have to acquire domestic currency.

Therefore, higher interest increases the demand for domestic currency in a market of foreign exchange.

4 0
3 years ago
Suppose that Taggart Transcontinental currently has no debt and has an equity cost of capital of 10%. Taggart is considering bor
labwork [276]

Answer:

Option (D) is correct.

Explanation:

We have to use MM proposition that cost of equity will change itself in such a manner so that it can take care of its debt.

Cost of equity:

= WACC of all equity firm + (WACC of all equity - Cost of debt ) × (Debt -to-equity ratio)

At the beginning, when there was no debt,

WACC = cost of equity = 10%

Levered cost of equity:

= 10% + ( 10% - 6%) × 0.2

= 10.8%

Therefore, Taggart's levered cost of equity would be closest to 11%.

8 0
3 years ago
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