They were both by their government army
One event that was not a cause of Southern colonies shifting from servitude to slavery was the B. French and Indian War.
<h3>Why did colonies shift to slavery from servitude?</h3><h3 />
The colonies found that enslaved people were easier to control than indentured servants as the latter still had several rights under the law.
The slave laws passed in V-irginia and Massachusetts took away the rights of African Americans and made it easier to enslave them.
When Bacon's Rebellion broke out, indentured servants of both races came against the wealthy and to avoid such a union, the elite enslaved Blacks.
The French and Indian War came a century after African Americans had been enslaved and so did not contribute to the shift to slavery.
Options for this question include:
A. Bacon's Rebellion
B. French and Indian War
C. Slave laws passed in V-irginia and Massachusetts.
D. Thirty Year's War.
Find out more on the shift from indentured servants at brainly.com/question/1563715.
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Hello! The answer would be C. As a responsible citizen, you'd need to f<span>ind somewhere else to inline skate. Hope this helps! :)</span>
It is false. Can i have brainliest?
<u>Answer</u>:
An industrialised area of a city or town is known as an urban area.
<u>Explanation</u>:
Urban areas are more developed and has more infrastructure as compared to a rural area. You would be able to find more human settlement when it comes to urban areas. Alternatively, cities together comprises of a state.
However, an urban area is more industrialised than any rural or regional areas. Urban areas have more density of human residents making it more infrastructural and industrialised as compared to rural areas.