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liberstina [14]
3 years ago
10

Suppose real GDP is $2,500 trillion while potential GDP is $1,000 trillion. What open market operation could the central bank us

e to close the gap? How much would this need to be if the reserve requirement was 20%?
Business
1 answer:
adelina 88 [10]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Check the explanation

Explanation:

The inflationary gap will be = Real GDP - Potential GDP, which will give you = $2,500 - $1,000 = $1,500.

The Federal government will have to lessen the actual GDP so as to close the gap since the actual GDP is bigger than the potential GDP. In this case, the Federal government will have to lower supply of money. So that it would have to sell securities to the banks. When the Federal government sells securities companies and private individuals, money is expected to flow from the banking system to the Federal government.

Here, multiplier = 1/reserve ratio = 1/20% = 1/0.20 = 5

So, in closing the space and lowering GDP by $1,500 trillion, the Federal government will have to sell securities worth $1,500 trillion/5 = $300 trillion.

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Santos Unlimited (SU) was originally unlevered with 4200 shares outstanding. However, after a major financial restructure, SU no
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Answer:

                            Unlevered             Levered

EAT       EBIT * (1-t)         EBIT - Interest - Tax

No. of shares         4,200                   3,800

Payoff per share holder = EAT / Number of shares. At Indifference point, per share payoff should be equal in both cases

EBIT * 0.66 / 4,200 = (EBIT - (37,000*8%) * 0.66) / 3,800

0.66*EBIT / 4,200 = [0.66*EBIT - 2,960*0.66] / 3,800

3,800 * 0.66EBIT = 4,200*[0.66EBIT - 1,954]

2,508 EBIT = 2,772 EBIT - 8,206,800

2,772 EBIT - 2,508 EBIT = 8,206,800

264 EBIT = 8,206,800

EBIT = 8,206,800/264

EBIT = 31086.36363636364

EBIT = $31,086.36

3 0
3 years ago
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