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il63 [147K]
3 years ago
9

What is 8×9=? ?-2=70.

Mathematics
2 answers:
Grace [21]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

8*9=72

72-2=70

Step-by-step explanation:

First you have to do 8*9 which equals to 72.

Then you subtract ?-2=70.

Now i will add 70+2 which equals to 72. After that you will subtract 72-2 which equals to 70.

Then your answer is 8*9=72 and 72-2=70.

MARK ME BRAINILEST PLZ.

Nonamiya [84]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

? = 72

Step-by-step explanation:

8x9= 72

And...

72-2 = 70

Brainiest?

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agasfer [191]

The correct answer is C.

Because by looking at the diagram you can see that angles 7 and 8 are intersected

6 0
3 years ago
Which polynomial, when added to the polynomial 5x^2–3x–9, is equivalent to:<br><br> x^2–5x+6?
inn [45]
Look at the attachment

8 0
3 years ago
Hector spent $41.75 for 2 DVDs that cost the same amount. The sales tax on his purchase was $3.15. Hector also used a coupon for
kykrilka [37]

Given:

Amount spent on 2 DVDs = $41.75

Sales tax = $3.15

Coupon = $1.00 off

To find:

The cost of each DVD.

Solution:

Let x be the cost of each DVD.

Then, cost of two DVDs = 2x

Amount spent of 2 DVDs = Cost of 2 DVDs + Sales tax - Coupon discount

41.75=2x+3.15-1.00

41.75=2x+2.15

41.75-2.15=2x

39.6=2x

Divide both sides by 2.

\dfrac{39.6}{2}=x

19.8=x

Therefore, the cost of each DVD is $19.8.

8 0
3 years ago
Explain which variables would be included when using technology to calculate the present value of a lump sum and to calculate th
koban [17]

Answer:

a. Present value of a lump sum =

PV = FV / ( 1 + i )ⁿ

b. Present value of an annuity =

P = PMT x ((1 – (1 / (1 + r)⁻ⁿ )) / r)

Step-by-step explanation:

a. Present Value of a Lump sum =

PV = FV / ( 1 + i )ⁿ

Where variables in the formula are explained as follows

PV = Present Value of the given amount today

FV = Future Value of the given amount

i = Discount rate

n = Number of periods

b. Present value of an annuity is given as:

P = PMT x ((1 – (1 / (1 + r)⁻ⁿ)) / r)

The variables in the equation are explained as the follows:

P = the present value of annuity

PMT = Payment per period or the amount in each annuity payment

r =  the interest or discount rate

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8 0
3 years ago
Leonardo wrote an equation that has an infinite number of solutions. One of the terms in Leonardo's equation is missing, as show
Tanya [424]

Answer:

The missing term is 3x

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

-(x - 1) + 5 = 2(x + 3) - _

Required

Find _

For proper identification of the parameters, represent _ with Z

So, the equation becomes

-(x - 1) + 5 = 2(x + 3) - Z

Open bracket (start from the left hand side)

-x + 1 + 5 = 2(x + 3) - Z

-x + 1 + 5 = 2x + 6 - Z

Solve like terms

-x + 6 = 2x + 6 - Z

Subtract 6 from both sides

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-x = 2x - Z

Subtract 2x from both sides

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Multiply both sides by -1

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Reorder

Z = 3x

Hence, the missing term is 3x

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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