Answer:
1 place to the left and 2 places down
Step-by-step explanation:
(+1,-2)
I got D.
There's a few ways to solve it; I prefer using tables, but there are functions on a TI-84 that'll do it for you too. The logic here is, you have a standard normal distribution which means right away, the mean is 0 and the standard deviation is 1. This means you can use a Z table that helps you calculate the area beneath a normal curve for a range of values. Here, your two Z scores are -1.21 and .84. You might notice that this table doesn't account for negative values, but the cool thing about a normal distribution is that we can assume symmetry, so you can just look for 1.21 and call it good. The actual calculation here is:
1 - Z-score of 1.21 - Z-score .84 ... use the table or calculator
1 - .1131 - .2005 = .6864
Because this table calculates areas to the RIGHT of the mean, you have to play around with it a little to get the bit in the middle that your graph asks for. You subtract from 1 to make sure you're getting the area in the middle and not the area of the tails in this problem.
Answer:
See below.
Step-by-step explanation:
The Slope of PQ is (v - z) / (w - x).
The slope of P'Q' =
(v + b) - (z + b)
--------------------- = (v - z) / (w - x)
(w + a - (x + a)
Both lines have a slope that is (v - z)/ (w - x).
So both lines are parallel.
Answer:
sin A =cos B
Step-by-step explanation:
sin A =opp/hyp =BC/AB
cos B=adj/hyp = BC/AB