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olasank [31]
3 years ago
10

If a company owns more than 20% of the stock of another company and the stock is being held as a long-term investment, which met

hod would the investor normally use to account for this investment?
Business
2 answers:
RSB [31]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Equity method .

Explanation:

Equity method is used to record the profits an organization made by investing in another company.

Equity method is a technique in accounting used in dealing with investment in associate companies. When the investing organization has between 20-50% of the voting stock in the associate company, an equity accounting method is always adopted, this is due to the high level of level it has in the management of the associate company.

krok68 [10]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

EQUITY METHOD.

Explanation:

Equity method is the process of treating investments in associate companies. Equity accounting is usually applied where an investor entity holds 20–50% of the voting stock of the associate company, and therefore has significant influence on the associate company's management. The investor records such investments as an asset on its balance sheet. The investor's proportional share of the associate company's net income increases the investment (and a net loss decreases the investment), and proportional payments of dividends decrease it.

Under the equity method, the investment is initially recorded at historical cost and adjustments are made to the value based on the investor's percentage ownership in net income, loss, and dividend payouts.

Therefore, the method the investor would normally use to account for this long-term investment is the EQUITY METHOD.

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Assume lawyer services are priced by the hour and elasticity of demand for a particular lawyer is 0.6. If she were to increase h
Dmitry [639]

Answer:

C. Fall, 30%, Rise

Explanation:

  • Price Elasticity of Demand is responsive change in demand, due to change in price.

P.Ed = % change in demand / % change in price.

Given : Price rise by 50% , P.Ed = 0.6

So, % change in demand = P.ed x % change in price

% change in demand = 0.6 (50)

% change in demand = 30%

Law of demand states negative relationship between price & demand, so P.ed is negative. Price rise 50% reduces demand by 30%.

  • P.Ed can be : Elastic ( > 1 ), or Inelastic ( < 1 ).  If P.Ed is Elastic, price & total revenue are inversely related. If P.Ed is Inelastic, price & total revenue are directly related.

So, Given PEd = 0.6 (i.e < 1 ) : Inelastic Demand implies price & total revenue are directly related related to each other. So, price fall lead to TR fall & price rise lead to TR rise.

6 0
3 years ago
Using the indirect method, the deduction from net income in calculating net cash flow from operating activities is...
Taya2010 [7]
Google might be able to help you out with the answer
6 0
3 years ago
What 1 20 in a decimal​
Katena32 [7]
For 1/20 to be a decimal, it would be 0.05.
5 0
3 years ago
The net initial investment for a piece of construction equipment is​ $2,000,000. Annual cash inflows are expected to increase by
strojnjashka [21]

Answer:

payback​ period is 5 years

Explanation:

given data

net initial investment = $2000000

annual cash inflow = $400000

useful life = 8 year

to find out

payback​ period

solution

we know here initial investment of equipment and cash inflow increase

so here payback period will be express as

payback​ period = net investment  / cash inflow   ..............1

put here value in equation 1

payback​ period = net investment  / cash inflow  

payback​ period = 2000000 / 400000

payback​ period = 5

so payback​ period is 5 years

7 0
3 years ago
Care facilities are expensive. Your mother wants a single room with her own bath-room. The annual estimated cost is $100,000, bu
Shtirlitz [24]

Answer:

$3,384.31

Explanation:

first of all we must determine how much money do you need to pay for 3 years of the facility:

PV = $100,000 x 2.6730 (PV annuity factor, 6%, 3 periods) = $267,300

if your mother does not invest more money, she will have $200,000 x (1 + 6%)⁴ = $252,495

this means that your mother will be $267,300 - $252,495 = $14,805 short

her annual contribution = $14,805 / 4.3746 (FV annuity factor, 6%, 4 periods) = $3,384.31

8 0
3 years ago
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