Answer:
$37,600 favorable
Explanation:
Variable overhead spending variance can be computed as;
= (Actual hours worked × Actual variable overhead rate) - ( Actual hours worked - Standard variable overhead rate)
= ( 18,800 hours × $77,700/12,000) - (18,800 hours × $4.5)
= [(18,800 × $6.5) - (18,800 × $4.5)]
= $122,200 - $84,600
= $37,600 favorable
Answer:
2.96% will be effective rate of the investment
Explanation:
First year:
1,000 x 1 + 10%) = 1,100
<em><u>Second year: </u></em>
1,100 + 3,000 = 4,100 invesmtent balance
4,100 x (1 - 5%) = 3,895
<em><u>Third year:</u></em>
3,895 + 2,000 = 5,895
5,895 x (1 + 2%) = 6012.9
<em><u>Fourth year:</u></em>
6012.9 + 500 = 6512.9
6,512.9 x (1+ 8%) = 7033.932
We calcualte rate that is equivalent with the following cash flow:
We solve using excel goal seek
0.029646151
Answer:
c. 2.36 years
Explanation:
In the payback, we analyze in how many years the invested amount is recovered. The computation is shown below:
In year 0 = $750
In year 1 = $300
In year 2 = $325
In year 3 = $350
If we sum the first 2 year cash inflows than it would be $625
Now we deduct the $625 from the $750 , so the amount would be $125 as if we added the fourth year cash inflow so the total amount exceed to the initial investment. So, we deduct it
And, the next year cash inflow is $350
So, the payback period equal to
= 2 years + ($125 ÷ $350)
= 2.36 years
In 2.36 yeas, the invested amount is recovered.
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