Answer:
depreciation
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that the term that is being described in this question is called depreciation. This is the reduction in the value of an asset as time goes by, and is mainly due to the fact that the asset experiences wear and tear and is not in the same condition as it was when it was purchased, therefore there is less demand for it.
Answer:
B) fit for the ordinary purpose for which such goods are used.
Explanation:
An implied warranty of merchantability means that the products sold should fulfill an ordinary buyer's expectations and should be fit for the purpose intended.
All products carry an implied warranty of merchantability unless expressly disclaimed or identified as a sale "with all faults" or "as is".
Your answer is, Preferred.
<h3><u>
What is a Preferred Stock</u></h3>
Preferred stock is a component of share capital that may have any combination of features not possessed by common stock, including properties of both an equity and a debt instrument, and is generally considered a hybrid instrument.
<h3><u>
Impact of a Preferred Stock</u></h3>
Companies that offer preferred shares instead of issuing bonds can accomplish a lower debt-to-equity ratio. That allows them to gain significantly more future financing from new investors. A company's debt-to-equity ratio is one of the most common metrics used to analyze the financial stability of a business.
<h3><u>
The 5 types of Preferred Stock</u></h3>
Thus, <u>option c</u> is your answer.
Learn more about a Preferred Stock here: brainly.com/question/18068539
Answer:
Final value= $2,282.013
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Erick is planning to invest $500 at the end of year one, 800 at the end of year two, and 900 at the end of year three at 4.5 percent interest.
To calculate the total final value of the investment, we need to use the following formula for each deposit:
FV= PV*(1+i)^n
Deposit 1= 500*1.045^2= 546.013
Deposit 2= 800*1.045= 836
Deposit 3= 900
Final value= $2,282.013
Answer:
5 tons of salt for 1 ton of pepper
10 tons of salt for 1 ton of pepper
Explanation:
Alphaland's opportunity cost of producing one ton of pepper = 80 ÷ 5
= 16 tons of salt
Betaton's opportunity cost of producing one ton of pepper = 3 ÷ 1
= 3 tons of salt
Alphaland's opportunity cost of producing one ton of salt = 5 ÷ 80
= 0.0625 tons of pepper
Betaton's opportunity cost of producing one ton of salt = 1 ÷ 3
= 0.3333 tons of pepper
Therefore, Betaton has a comparative advantage in producing pepper because it has the lower opportunity cost of producing pepper as compared to Alphaland. On the other hand, Alphaland has a comparative advantage in producing salt because it has the lower opportunity cost of producing salt as compared to Betaton.
Hence, Betaton is specialized in the production of pepper and Alphaland is specialized in the production of salt.
Trade is beneficial for both the nations when Alphaland buys pepper at a price lower than the 16 tons of salt and Betaton sells pepper at a price greater than 3 tons of salt.
Trade ratios:
5 tons of salt for 1 ton of pepper
10 tons of salt for 1 ton of pepper
