Answer:
A 1:6
Step-by-step explanation:
3:18 simply to 1:6
Answer:
a) 51.4
b) answer attached
c) 48.59% female
Step-by-step explanation:
a) Male driver = 100-48.6 = 51.4%
b) answer attached below
c) probability that out of 20-64 group a randomly selected sample is female
( 39.54 ÷ 81.36 ) x 100
= 48.59% chance of her being a female
Answer:
$6488.19
Step-by-step explanation:
To solve this problem we use the compounded interest formula:
a = $2600(1+(0.0675/1))¹*¹⁴
a = $6488.19
Answer:
2
----------
5w^11
Step-by-step explanation:
8/20 reduces to 2/5, and (w^(-2)) / w^9 becomes 1 / w^11.
Overall, #20 reduces to:
2
----------
5w^11
Recall the rule of exponents:
w^a
----------- = w^(a-b)
w^b
and note that
w^(-2)
------------ = w^(-2-9) = w^(-11) (same as above)
w^9
3/5 cause you get the lowest common denominator
