When you first pick a ticket, there are 2 winning tickets and 40 total tickets. This means that there is a 2/40 chance of your ticket being a winning one. This fraction can be reduced to 1/20.
After this, there will be 1 winning ticket left and 39 total tickets. There is a 1/39 chance of the next ticket being a winning one. We multiply these two fractions together to get our answer. 1/20 * 1/39 = 1/780, so there is a 1/780 chance of having 2 winning tickets.
Answer:
f(u +6) = u
Step-by-step explanation:
Put (u+6) in place of t and simplify:
f(u+6) = (u+6) -6
f(u+6) = u
I think its 1000 numbers because there from 1 to 999 there are 999 numbers, and then you add zero because it is also a whole number.
Answer: Option (c) is correct. Rate of interest = 6% p.a.
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that,
principal amount = $2000(loan)
time period = 284 days
interest amount (SI) = $93.37
we have to calculate the rate of interest (i),
Simple interest(SI) = principal amount × rate of interest (i) × time period
93.37 = 2000 × i × 
i = 
i = 0.06
i = 6%
