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viktelen [127]
3 years ago
13

Rainey Enterprises loaned $20,000 to Small Co. on June 1, 2018, for one year at 6 percent interest. Required Show the effects of

the following transactions in a horizontal statements. In the Cash Flow column, indicate whether the item is an operating activity (OA), an investing activity (IA), or a financing activity (FA). For any element not affected by the event, leave the cell blank. (Not every cell will require entry. Do not round intermediate calculations. Enter any decreases to account balances and cash outflows with a minus sign.) (1) The loan to Small Co. (2) The adjusting entry at December 31, 2018. (3) The adjusting entry and collection of the note on June 1, 2019.

Business
1 answer:
kari74 [83]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

See explanation

Explanation:

See the image below:

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On March 1, the actual cash received from cash sales was $36,006, and the amount indicated by the cash register total was $36,01
Artyom0805 [142]

Answer:

Journal Entry

Explanation:

The Journal Entry is shown below:-

Cash Dr,                                 $36,006

Cash short and over Dr,        $4

     ($36,010 - $36,006)      

    To Sales                                  $36,010

(Being cash sales, cash short and over is recorded)

Therefore, to record cash sales, cash short and over we debited cash and cash short and over while credited sales.

5 0
3 years ago
Which of the following provides for a reduction in the employer's state unemployment tax rate based on the employer's experience
statuscvo [17]

Answer:

b.Experience-rating plan

Explanation:

Experience rating is a method of evaluating used by insurance providers to adjust premiums up or down. The rating reflects your previous loss experience. It is based on the presumption that your historical loss experience predicts your future loss experience. In other words, your future losses are likely to be similar to those you incurred in the past. The Experience Rating Plan is mandatory for all eligible insureds. Any action taken in any form to evade the application of an experience modification determined in accordance with this Plan is prohibited.  The object of the Experience Rating Plan is to recognize the differences between individual insureds through the use of the individual insured's own loss experience. The experience rating process serves as a means of using a history of past losses to predict the future losses of an insured.

This is done by comparing the experience of an individual insured to the average insured in the same classification. Therefore, using the insured's past experience, the experience modification is determined by comparing the actual losses to expected losses.   An insured with better than average experience will produce a credit experience modification factor, while an insured with worse than average experience will produce a debit experience modification factor.  A credit experience modification factor, less than 1.00, results in a premium reduction. A debit experience modification factor, greater than 1.00, results in a premium increase. An experience modification factor of 1.00, or unity, does not change premium.

6 0
2 years ago
Motorcycle Manufacturers, Inc., projected sales of 54,500 machines for the year. The estimated January 1 inventory is 6,860 unit
MrRa [10]

Answer:

55,060 machines

Explanation:

Projected sales = 54,500

Estimated opening balance = 6,860

Desired ending balance = 7,420

Budgeted production = ?

Let the budgeted production be B

Using the formula

Opening balance + Budgeted production - Sales = Closing balance

6,860 + B - 54,500 = 7,420

B = 7,420 + 54,500 - 6,860

B = 55,060

The budgeted production for the year is 55,060 machines.

4 0
3 years ago
A financial institution has entered into an interest rate swap with company X. Under the terms of the swap, it receives 10% per
sergij07 [2.7K]

Answer:

The loss of the financial institution is $413,000

Explanation:

Let's say that after 3 years the financial institution will receive:

0.5 * 10% of $10million

= 0.5 * 0.1 * 10000000

= $500,000

Then, they will pay 0.5 * 9% of $10M

= 0.5 * 0.09 * 10000000

= $450,000

Therefore, their immediate loss would be $500000 - $450000

= $50000.

Let's assume that forward rates are realized to value the rest of the swap.

The forward rates = 8% per annum.

Therefore, the remaining cash flows are assumed that floating payment is

0.5*0.08*10000000 =

$400,000

Received net payment would be:

500,000-400,000= $100,000. The total cost of default is therefore the cost of foregoing the following cash flows:

Year 3=$50,000

Year 3.5=$100,000

Year 4 = $100,000

Year 4.5= $100,000

Year 5 = $100,000

Discounting these cash flows to year 3 at 4% per six months, the cost of default would be $413,000

4 0
3 years ago
Over a period of years, Engineers' salaries have increased at a rate of 8.5% per year. If inflation has been 5.5% per year, what
-Dominant- [34]

Answer:

3% salary increase

Explanation:

simply 8.5%-5.5%

8 0
2 years ago
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