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hoa [83]
3 years ago
15

What is the coefficient for 8N

Mathematics
1 answer:
strojnjashka [21]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:8

Step-by-step explanation:

8N is the equation

And a coefficient is the number in front of a letter

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Erica plotted the three towns closest to her house on a graph with town AA at (9, 12), town BB at (9, 7) and town CC at (1, 1).
Sliva [168]
To compute the distance between the points, we can apply the distance formula as shown below.

d = \sqrt{(x_{1} - x_{2})^{2} + (y_{1} - y_{2})^{2} }

In which x₁ and x₂ are the x-coordinates and y₁ and y₂ are the y-coordinates of the two points. Thus, applying this with the segments AABB, AACC, and BBCC, we have

\overline{AABB} = \sqrt{(9-9)^{2} + (12-7)^{2}} = 5
\overline{AACC} = \sqrt{(9-1)^{2} + (12-1)^{2}} = \sqrt{185}
\overline{BBCC} = \sqrt{(9-1)^{2} + (7-1)^{2}} = 10

Now that we have the lengths of all the sides of ΔAABBCC, we can find the missing angles using the Law of Cosines.

Generally, we have

c^{2} = a^{2} + b^{2} - 2abcosC

or

C = cos^{-1} (\frac{a^{2} + b^{2} - c^{2}}{2ab})

Hence, we have

\angle AA = cos^{-1} (\frac{(\sqrt{185})^{2} + 5^{2} - 10^{2}}{2(5)(\sqrt185)})
\angle BB= cos^{-1} (\frac{5^{2} + 10^{2} - (\sqrt{185})^{2}}{2(5)(10)})
\angle CC= cos^{-1} (\frac{10^{2} + (\sqrt{185})^{2} - 5^{2}}{2(5)(\sqrt{185})})

Simplifying this, we have

\angle AA = 36.03^{0}
\angle BB = 126.87^{0}
\angle CC = 17.10^{0} 

Thus, from this, we can arrange the angles from smallest to largest: ∠CC, ∠AA, and ∠BB.

Answer: ∠CC, ∠AA, and ∠BB
3 0
3 years ago
Find the volume of the prism?*
Luba_88 [7]

Answer:

The volume is 210 cm³

Step-by-step explanation:

The way to solve volume is LxWxH, so you would do 6x5x7 and you get 210.

7 0
3 years ago
The letters P-R-O-B-A-B-I-L-I-T-Y are written on a set of cards. You mix the cards thoroughly. Without looking, you draw one let
OleMash [197]

Answer:

P(P, then Y)=(1/11)(1/10)=1/110

Step-by-step explanation:

The number of letters in probability is 11.

There is 1 P.

The probability of drawing a P on draw 1 is the number of ways of drawing a P, which is 1, divided by the number of ways of drawing any letter, which is 11.  Thus:

Probability of drawing a P on the first draw is 1/11.

There are now 10 letters left. There is 1 Y. so

Probability of drawing a Y on the second draw given that you drew a P on the first draw is 1/10.

The probability of drawing a P on the first draw and a Y on the second draw is

(probability of a P on draw 1)(probability of drawing a Y on draw 2, given a P on draw 1)

P(P, then Y)=(1/11)(1/10)=1/110

8 0
3 years ago
Please helppppppp meeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeee
aleksley [76]

Answer:

y = x + 8

Step-by-step explanation:

For 8cm of thread, 1cm of the bracelet may be produced. therefore being y(thread) = x(bracelet) with the addition of 8 (+8). Hope this helps!

4 0
3 years ago
A trail is 13.5 miles Lilongwe. There are markers every 0.25 miles. How many markers are there
nikklg [1K]
54 I'm pretty sure, sorry if I'm wrong
8 0
3 years ago
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