I believe it is A
a monopoly is when a company owns all the companies in that buisnesses
Answer:
option (C) - 6.11%
Explanation:
Data provided :
Coupon rate one year ago = 6.5% = 0.065
Semiannual coupon rate = 
= 0.0325
Face value = $1,000
Present market yield = 7.2% = 0.072
Semiannual Present market yield, r = 
= 0.036
Now,
With semiannual coupon rate bond price one year ago, C
= 0.0325 × $1,000
= $32.5
Total period in 15 years = 15 year - 1 year = 14 year
or
n = 14 × 2 = 28 semiannual periods
Therefore,
The present value = ![C\times[\frac{(1-(1+r)^{-n})}{r}]+FV(1+r)^{-n}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=C%5Ctimes%5B%5Cfrac%7B%281-%281%2Br%29%5E%7B-n%7D%29%7D%7Br%7D%5D%2BFV%281%2Br%29%5E%7B-n%7D)
= ![\$32.5\times[\frac{(1-(1+0.036)^{-28})}{0.036}]+\$1,000\times(1+0.036)^{-28}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5C%2432.5%5Ctimes%5B%5Cfrac%7B%281-%281%2B0.036%29%5E%7B-28%7D%29%7D%7B0.036%7D%5D%2B%5C%241%2C000%5Ctimes%281%2B0.036%29%5E%7B-28%7D)
or
= $32.5 × 17.4591 + $1,000 × 0.37147
= $567.42 + $371.47
= $938.89
Hence,
The percent change in bond price = 
= 
= - 6.11%
therefore,
the correct answer is option (C) - 6.11%
Answer:
Doubtful
Explanation:
The company will record the uncollectible $5,670 of its accounts receivable as a debit to uncollectible accounts expense and a credit to the DOUBTFUL account.
This is evident in the fact that the bad debt allowance method has three main principles which are:
1. Calculate uncollectible receivables
2. Debit bad debt expense and credit allowance for doubtful accounts in the journal entry
3. Debit allowance for doubtful accounts and credit the corresponding receivables account when it is time to write off the account.
Answer:
Perfect Competition
Explanation:
Perfect competition is a market characterized by many buyers and sellers that have full information and faces no barrier in entry and exit of the markets. It is the ideal form of market structure where competition is at is greatest possible value. The numerous buyers and sellers are engaged in trade of a homogeneous good in the market. It is also characterized by no long run economic profit and no control over prices.
Answer:
positively.
Explanation:
The <u><em>correlation </em></u>between education and income is positive a more educated person will always have a better income than one that is not. But along the statistical distribution of this<u><em> correlation</em></u> there are people that <u><em>deviate </em></u>for the curve <u><em>(standar deviation)</em></u> and even though they are educated they do not earn as much money to others that have the same level of education.
