Answer:
30%
Explanation:
The computation is shown below:
Here we considered a long term bond that time period should be 15 years or more
Now as we know that
Current yield is
= Current payment ÷ Pb
5% = Current payment ÷ $800
The Current payment is $40
Now the yield to maturity is
-$800 = $50 ÷ (1 + i) + $1,000 ÷ (1 + i) + $1,040 ÷ (1 + i)
So, i = 30%
The same is to be chosen
Answer: I am right, the increased demand represents a rightward shift of the aggregate demand curve.
Explanation:
The increase in aggregate demand by foreigners occurred as a result of a fall in the value of the US dollars and aggreagrate price level stayed the same. Therefore, the change in aggregate demand didn't occur as a result of a change in price.
If agregrate demand changed as a result of a change in the aggregate price levels, there would be a change in quantity demanded and a movement along the demand curve.
It's only a change in price that result results in a movement along the aggregate demand curve.
Other factors that leads to a change in demand either shifts the aggregate demand curve to the left or to the right.
Therefore, an increase in aggregate demand as a result of the fall in value of US dollars causes the aggregate demand curve to shift to the right.
The shift in the aggregate demand curve to the right shows that demand has increased but aggregate price hasn't changed.
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