Answer:
Contribution margin ratio= 0.125= 12.5%
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Selling price= $80
Unitary variable cost= $70
To calculate the contribution margin ratio, we need to use the following formula:
Contribution margin ratio= (selling price - unitary variable cost) / selling price
Contribution margin ratio= (80 - 70) / 80= 0.125= 12.5%
Answer:
The correct option is c. 78.39%.
Explanation:
Note: This question is not complete. The complete question is therefore provided before answering the question. See the attached pdf file for the complete question.
The explanation to the answer is now given as follows:
In regression model, R-squared (R^2) is the statistical measure that shows the percentage of the total variation a dependent variable that is explained by an independent variable(s).
From the question, the candy bar sales is the dependent variable while the Price is the independent variable.
Therefore, the R^2 is calculated using the RSQ function in the Microsoft excel.
Note: See the attached excel file for the calculation of the R^2 using the RSQ function.
For the data in the excel, the R^2 is calculated by simply typing =RSQ(C3:C8,B3:B8) anywhere in the attached excel file. This gives 0.7839. Converting this to a percentage gives 78.39%.
Therefore, percentage of the total variation in candy bar sales explained by prices is 78.39%. The correct option is c. 78.39%.
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Answer:
Option A is false statement among these.
<u>The actual wage rate is almost always different from the standard rate</u>
Explanation:
The actual wage rate paid and standard rate established can be different causing the labour rate variance.
Direct labour cost variance is the difference between the standard cost for actual production and the actual cost in production. There are two kinds of labour variances. Labour Rate Variance is the difference between the standard cost and the actual cost paid for the actual number of hours.
Answer:
The correct answer to the question is OPTION C (The riskiest assets were the small stocks. Intuition tells us that smaller companies should be riskiest.)
Explanation:
The riskiest assets were the small stocks.
The Great Depression was a term in the 20th century that became synonymous with hardship, suffering due significantly to the failure of the economy in the world with evidence of crash in the stock market.
The riskiest assets were the small stocks because it already crashed as panic made some stop investing and a lot of banks lost money. So small stocks were not lucrative again then, making it a risky asset to have.
Instinct tells us that smaller companies should be the riskiest because investing in smaller companies could be less lucrative due to a fall in the value of shares in tough times as compared to bigger companies.
Answer:
Throughout the overview section following table, the definition including its instance supplied is defined.
Explanation:
- The asset turnover ratio reflects how much inventory is consumed and restocked throughout the year.
- Excess inventory becomes counterproductive and constitutes a low-return investment. An alternate interpretation including its inventory turnover ratio substitutes the cost of products delivered towards revenue in the numerator.
- Compared to the conditions around which the company prices its products, the DSO may even be measured. This will suggest a need to step up the accumulation of receivables unless the pattern has been growing and credit policy just hasn't improved.
- Because of age, there may be issues understanding this calculation, specifically whenever an older organization in comparison to something like a newer business.