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3 years ago

PLEASE HELP FAST How does Wallach relate the future to a part of speech? Explain.

Business

1 answer:

Feliz [49]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

Wallach describes three ways of thinking :

T<u>ransgenerational thinking</u>: It helps us to think about our problems and the ways in which you can resolve them ,and what will be the future consequence of your thinking.

<u>Futures thinking:</u> Wallach advocated the fact that we should just not think about the future in one single perspective rather we should open our mind about various future perspectives.

<u>Telos thinking:</u>The word Telos comes from a greek word which means :Ultimate aim".One should think that what will happen next once a particular problem is solved

Wallach relate the future to a part of speech establishing a link between Thomas Khun quote: “People don’t shift unless they have a vision of what it is they’re shifting to.” and Martin Luther King Speech of "I Have a Dream" he says that that speech is successful as it shows what his dream and what will come after the dream is accomplished

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If a test is being used to make a dichotomous decision (e. G. , suitable or unsuitable for the job), the _____ marks the point o

wolverine [178]

If a test is being used to make a dichotomous decision (e. G. , suitable or unsuitable for the job), the cutting marks the point of decision.

<h3>What is the usefulness of cut off mark in a test?</h3>

cut off mark in a test is been used in the selection process after the test which is very important in the point of decision.

And this will be necessary to get the good hand for the job when the test is being used to make a dichotomous decision.

Learn more about cut off mark at:brainly.com/question/25997960

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2 years ago

A company currently pays a dividend of $3.4 per share (D0 = $3.4). It is estimated that the company's dividend will grow at a ra

ArbitrLikvidat [17]

Answer:

Current price of stock =$128.06

Explanation:

The Dividend Valuation Model is a technique used to value the worth of an asset. According to this model, the worth of an asset is the sum of the present values of its future cash flows discounted at the required rate of return.

The model is given as

P = D× g/(r-g)

P- price, D- dividend payable in year 1, r -cost of equity, g - growth rate in dividend

Cost of equity

The cost of equity can be calculated using the Capital Asset Model (CAPM).

Ke= Rf +β(Rm-Rf)

Ke =? , Rf- 6.5%, (Rm-Rf)- 1.5, β- 1.3

Ke=6.5% + 1.3× (1.5)= 8.45%

Stock price

PV of dividend in year 1 = 3.4× 1.17× 1.0845^(-1)=3.668

PV of dividend in year 2 = 3.4× 1.17^2× 1.0845^(-2) = 3.9572

<em>PV of dividend in year 3</em>

This will be done in two(2) steps:

Step 1- PV in year 2 terms

3.4× 1.17^2× 1.05/(0.0845- 0.05)= 141.651

Step 2- PV in year 0

141.6513913× 1.0845^(-2)= 120.4375

Current piece of stock = 3.668 + 3.957 + 120.4375 = 128.062

Current price of stock =$128.062

5 0

3 years ago

Bonita Corporation had net income of $1550000 and paid dividends to common stockholders of $400000 in 2017. The weighted average

artcher [175]

Answer:

16 times

Explanation:

Calculation to determine what Bonita Corporation's price-earnings ratio is

Price-earnings ratio= ($1550000 -$400000)/387500

Price-earnings ratio=$1,150,000/387500

Price-earnings ratio=2.97

Price-earnings ratio= 48/2.97

Price-earnings ratio=16 times

Therefore Bonita Corporation's price-earnings ratio is 16 times

3 0

3 years ago

When a monopoly increases its output and sales,

musickatia [10]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "D": the output effect works to increase total revenue and the price effect works to decrease total revenue.

Explanation:

The output effect in a monopoly takes place when the price of input will raise the production costs of a business and reduce its output level and vice-versa. The price effect refers to the impact an activity has on the value of something. The price effect consists of the effect of substitution and the effect of profits. While the output effect has the purpose of increasing revenue, the price effect works towards decreasing it.

7 0

3 years ago

Pamela, a 1/3 partner, has an adjusted basis of $100,000 for her partnership interest. If Pamela sells her entire partnership in

creativ13 [48]

Answer: Capital gain = $10,000 ; Ordinary income = $25,000

Explanation:

Here is the complete question:

The PLM Partnership balance sheet includes the following assets on December 31 of the current year:

Basis FMV

Cash $230,000 $230,000

Accounts receivable 0 75000

Land 70,000 100,000

Total $300,000 $405,000

Pamela, a 1/3 partner, has an adjusted basis of $100,000 for her partnership interest. If Pamela sells her entire partnership interest to Emma for $135,000 cash, how much capital gain and ordinary income must Pamela recognize from the sale?

The following can be calculated based on the question above:

Pamela's share of the unrealized receivables will be the ordinary income which will be the unrealized receivables of $75000 which is then multiplied by 1/3 which is the interest. This will be:

Ordinary income = 1/3 × $75,00

= $25,000

The capital gain will be the difference that occurs between total gain and ordinary income.

Total gain difference

= $135,000 - $100,000

= $35,000

Ordinary Income = $25,000

Capital gain = $35,000 - $25,000

= $10,000

5 0

3 years ago