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Annette [7]
3 years ago
12

At December 1, 2017, Swifty Corporation Accounts Receivable balance was $12770. During December, Swifty had credit sales of $342

00 and collected accounts receivable of $27360. At December 31, 2017, the Accounts Receivable balance is _____________.
a) $19610 credit
b) $1 debit
c) $46970 debit
d) $19610 debit
Business
1 answer:
Nat2105 [25]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

a) $19610 credit

Explanation:

Given: Accounts receivables as on Dec 1, 2017 = $12770

           Credit sale during the month = $34200

           Collections during the month = $27360

Accounts Receivable balance at the end of the month = Opening Accounts Receivable balance + credit sales during the month - cash collected during the month

= $12770 + $34200 - $27360

Accounts Receivable balance as on Dec 31, 2017 =  $19610 credit

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Your trip to was great, but it unfortunately ran a bit over budget. However, you just received an offer in the mail to transfer
serg [7]

Answer:

with the new rate we will pay in 58 months.

if there is 2% commision charge: 59.35 = 60 months

Explanation:

Currently we owe 10,000

This will be transfer to a new credit card with a rate of 6.2%

We are going to do monthly payment of 200 dollars each month

and we need to know the time it will take to pay the loan:

We use the formula for ordinary annuity and solve for time:

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C  $200.00

time n

rate 0.005166667 (6.2% rate divide into 12 months)

PV $10,000.0000

200 \times \frac{1-(1+0.0051667)^{-n} }{0.0051667} = 10000\\

We arrenge the formula and solve as muhc as we can:

(1+0.0051667)^{-n}= 1-\frac{10000\times0.0051667}{200}

(1+0.0051667)^{-n}= 0.74166667

Now, we use logarithmics properties to solve for time:

-n= \frac{log0.741667}{log(1+0.0051667)

-57.99227477 = 58 months

part B

If there is a charge of 2% then Principal = 10,000 x 102% = 10,200

we use that in the formula and solve:

(1+0.0051667)^{-n}= 1-\frac{10200\times0.0051667}{200}

(1+0.0051667)^{-n}=0.73650000

-n= \frac{log0.7365}{log(1+0.0051667)

-59.34880001 = 59.35 months

6 0
3 years ago
Project Q has an initial cost of $257,412 and projected cash flows of $123,300 in Year 1 and $180,300 in Year 2. Project R has a
ss7ja [257]

Answer:

b) Accept Project R and reject Project Q

Explanation:

We can use the following method to solve the given problem in the question

We are given

Project Q: Initial Cost = $ 257,412

Projected Cash Flows: Yr 1 : $ 123,300 Yr 2 : $ 180,300

Total Present Value of all the Future Cash Flows using 12.2% as Rate of Return

= 123,300/1.122 + 180,300/(1.122*1.122)

= 109,893 + 143,222

= $ 253,115

Profitability Index = Total Present Values of all Cash Inflows / Initial Investment

= 253,115 / 257142 = 0.98

Since the Initial Investment is greater than the Present Value of Cash Inflows, that is, l Profitability Index < 0 the Project should not be selected.

Project R: Initial Cost = $ 345,000

Projected Cash Flows: Yr 1 : $ 184,500 Yr 2 : $ 230,600

Total Present Value of all the Future Cash Flows using 12.2% as Rate of Return

= 184,500/1.122 + 230,600/(1.122*1.122)

= 164,438.5 + 183,178

= $ 347,616.5

Profitability Index = Total Present Values of all Cash Inflows / Initial Investment

= 347,616.5 / 345,000 = 1.01

Since the Initial Investment is lower that the Present Value of the Cash Inflows, that is, Profitability Index > 0 the Project should be selected.

Accept Project R and Reject Project Q, so option B is the correct answer

8 0
3 years ago
Concord Corporation uses the percentage-of-receivables basis to record bad debt expense and concludes that 4% of accounts receiv
brilliants [131]

Explanation:

The journal entries are shown below:

a. Bad debt expense A/c Dr  $13,931

                To Allowance for doubtful debts $13,931

(Being bad debt expense is recorded)

It is computed below:

= $421,300 × 4% - $2,921

= $13,931

b. a. Bad debt expense A/c Dr  $17,722

                To Allowance for doubtful debts $17,722

(Being bad debt expense is recorded)

It is computed below:

= $421,300 × 4% + $870

= $17,722

5 0
3 years ago
A $10,000, 8 percent coupon bond that sells for $10,000 has a yield to maturity of
Illusion [34]

Answer:

A) 8 percent.

Explanation:

Coupon rate refers to the expected periodic earnings of a bond until its maturity. The coupon rate is expressed as a percentage of the par value or the face value of the bond. It is similar to the interest rate for other investments option.  A bond's coupon rate is, therefore, its interest rate.

A bond coupon rate represents its yearly earnings. However, most bonds will pay the interest twice per year. The bond issuer pays the bondholder regular and fixed interest until the bond matures. The coupon rate determines the bond's profitability. A bond with a higher coupon rate is more attractive to investors.

8 0
3 years ago
SprayCo Inc. develops and produces spraying equipment for lawn maintenance and industrial uses. On March 9 of the current year,
Anon25 [30]

Answer:

treasury stock    382,000 debit

             cash                  382,000 credit

cash          342,500 debit

  treasury stock               274,000 credit

 additional paid-in TS       68,500 credit

cash          84,000 debit

  treasury stock                80,000 credit

 additional paid-in TS         4,000 credit

additional paid-in TS 72,500

Treasury Stock           28,000

<em>The Treasury Stock will be reported as a decrease to the equity.</em>

Explanation:

19,100 shares x $20 per share = 382,000

13,700 shares x $20 per share = 274,000

13,700 shares x $25 per share = 342,500

additional paid-in = 68,500

4,000 shares x $21 per share  =     84,000

4,000 shares x $20 per share =    (80,000)

          additional paid-in                   4,000

68,500 + 4,000 = 72,500 additional paid-in TS

TS 382,000 - 274,000 - 80,000 = 28,000

7 0
3 years ago
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