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Yanka [14]
4 years ago
6

The dropout rate for young people from families with incomes $100,000 and above is less than 3 percent; for those from families

with incomes below $25,000, the dropout rate is about:
Business
1 answer:
Anton [14]4 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The dropout rate is about 12%

Explanation:

There is an inverse relationship between the drop out rate and income, this means the an increase in the income will cause a significant decrease in the dropout rate. This can be expressed as;

I=k/d

where;

I=income

k=constant of proportionality

d=dropout rate

In our case;

I=$100,000

k=unknown

d=3%=3/100=0.03

replacing;

100,000=k/0.03

k=100,000×0.03=3,000

Using different values of Income;

I=$25,000

k=3,000

d=unknown

replacing;

25,000=3,000/d

d=3,000/25,000=0.12

The dropout rate=0.12×100=12%

The dropout rate=12%

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Assume that you have been hired as a consultant by CGT, a major producer of chemicals and plastics, including plastic grocery ba
Brilliant_brown [7]

Answer:

5.14%

Explanation:

Determining the pretax cost of debt is the first to do prior to ascertaining after tax cost of debt.

Pretax cost of debt  can be computed using the rate formula in excel.

=rate(nper,pmt,-pv,fv)

nper is the number of times the bond would coupon interest,hence paying coupon every six months for 20 years means 40 coupon payments

pmt is the semiannual coupon bondholders would received from the bond i.e $1000*7.25%*6/12=$36.25

pv is the current market price at $875

fv is the face value of $1000

=rate(40,36.25,-875,1000)=4.28%   semiannually

=4.28% *2=8.56% annually

after tax cost of debt=8.56%*(1-t),where t is the tax rate of 40% or 0.40

after tax cost of debt=8.56%*(1-0.4)=5.14%

8 0
3 years ago
Smashing Pumpkins Co. uses the LCM method, on an individual-item basis, in pricing its inventory items. The inventory at Dec. 31
horsena [70]

Answer:

For detailed tables of balance sheet refer to the attached files

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Comcast (CMCSA) is trading at 54.33. You decide to short sell 100 shares of their stock, providing 2850 in collateral to your br
s344n2d4d5 [400]

Answer: =-9.34%

Explanation:

Assuming the brokerage account pays no interest on your cash, the return, relative to the collateral will be calculated as:

= (Short sell price - dividend - Share buy price)/Capital employed

= (5433 - 100 - 5600) / 2850

= -267 / 2850

= -0.09368

=-9.34%

Note:

Short sell price = 54.33 × 100 = 5433

Dividend = 100

Share buy price = 56 × 100 = 5600

3 0
3 years ago
Tamarisk, Inc. has 12000 shares of 5%, $100 par value, non-cumulative preferred stock and 48000 shares of $1 par value common st
hjlf

Answer:

$84,000

Explanation:

preference share dividend is at 5% on $100 par value. The  number of preference shares is 12,000 shares ( non cumulative)

The year 2017 preference share dividend pay out is 5% of 100 multiplied by 12,000 = $60,000

Deduct $ 60,000 from $144,000 dividend declared in 2017 , the balance is common stockholders dividend.

144,000 minus 60,000 = $84,000

Non cumulative preference shares dividend are paid first for the year the company declares dividend. The dividend is not cumulative ( prior years dividend for which company did not declare dividend are forfeited).

The common stockholders are paid dividend after preference shares dividend are paid. The common stockholders bears the full risk of the business as seen above. In event of liquidation, they are the last to be settled from realised asset of the bankrupt company.

7 0
3 years ago
Help me help me help me
Minchanka [31]

Answer:

234.03

Explanation:

If you do the math and multiply both the percentages by 3329 and subtract them you’ll get the answer! To multiply you have to turn the percentages into decimals

5 0
3 years ago
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