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dmitriy555 [2]
3 years ago
6

Slater Mines just called its outstanding bonds at a call price of $1,025. The bonds have a conversion price of $33.33 and a par

value of $1,000. The stock price is currently $33.10. In response to this call, the bondholders should _____ because _____.
Business
1 answer:
Kazeer [188]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

In response to this call, the bondholders should Accept the call as call price exceeds the conversion value

Explanation:

Number of shares (if bonds are converted) = par value/conversion price = 1,000/33.33 = 30 shares

Current value of 30 shares = 30*current share price = 30*33.10 = $993.10

Call price of $1,025 is greater than the current value of converted bonds, so bondholders should accept the call

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On January 3, 2014, Trusty Delivery Service purchased a truck at a cost of $90,000. Before placing the truck in service, Trusty
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Answer:

Accumulated depreciation for Years 1 - 5 under:

  • the Straight-line method is $90,000.
  • the Units-of-production method is $90,000.
  • the Double-declining-balance method is $86,170.

Explanation:

The total cost of the asset is $90,000 + $3,000 + $1,500 + $4,500 = $99,000, since all the other costs were directly attributable cost and were necessary to bring the asset to usable form.

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Under straight-line method, depreciation expense is (cost - residual value) / No of years = ($99,000 - $9,000) / 5 years = $18,000 yearly depreciation expense.

Accumulated depreciation for Years 1 to 5 is $18,000 x 5 years $90,000.

The unit-of-production method is used when the asset value closely relates to the units of output it is able to produce. It is expressed with the formula below:

(Original Cost - Salvage value) / Estimated production capacity x Units/year

At Year 1, depreciation expense (DE) is: ($99,000 - $9,000) / 100,000 miles x 22,500 miles = $20,250/year

Accumulated depreciation for the first four years is $20,250 x 4 years = $81,000.

At Year 5, depreciation = $90,000 / 100,000 miles x 10,000 miles = $9,000

Note that this depreciation method results in higher depreciation charge when the asset is heavily used, at this time, it was in Years 1 - 4.

Accumulated depreciation expense for Years 1 to 5, under this method, is $90,000 (addition of first four years and the Year 5).

The double-declining method is otherwise known as the reducing balance method and is given by the formula below:

Double declining method = 2 X SLDP X BV

SLDP = straight-line depreciation percentage

BV = Book value

SLDP is 100%/5years = 20%, then 20% multiplied by 2 to give 40%

At Year 1, 40% X $99,000 = $39,600

At Year 2, 40% X $59,400 ($99,000 - $39,600) = $23,760

At Year 3, 40% X $35,640 ($59,400 - $23,760) = $14,256

At Year 4, 40% X $21,384 ($35,640 - $14,256) = $8,554 approximately (the depreciation expense would stop at this stage since the amount falls below the residual value).

Accumulated depreciation expense for Years 1 to 4, under this method, is $86,170 (addition of all the yearly depreciation).

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Have some points anyone i dont care :)
VARVARA [1.3K]

Answer:

Hey

Explanation:

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