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sweet [91]
3 years ago
8

Assume that you have been hired as a consultant by CGT, a major producer of chemicals and plastics, including plastic grocery ba

gs, Styrofoam cups, and fertilizers, to estimate the firm's weighted average cost of capital. The balance sheet and some other information are provided below. Assets Current assets $ 38,000,000 Net plant, property, and equipment 101,000,000 Total assets $139,000,000 Liabilities and Equity Accounts payable $ 10,000,000 Accruals 9,000,000 Current liabilities $ 19,000,000 Long-term debt (40,000 bonds, $1,000 par value) 40,000,000 Total liabilities $ 59,000,000 Common stock (10,000,000 shares) 30,000,000 Retained earnings 50,000,000 Total shareholders' equity 80,000,000 Total liabilities and shareholders' equity $139,000,000 Market value of CGT’s stock = $15.25 per share CGT has $1,000 par value,20-year,7.25% coupon bonds with semiannual payments, selling for $875.00. CGT’s stock beta =1.25 6-month Treasury bill yield =3.50% 20-year Treasury bond yield =5.50%. Required return on S&P 500=11.50% The firm's tax rate is 40%. What is the best estimate of CGT’s after-tax cost of debt?
Business
1 answer:
Brilliant_brown [7]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

5.14%

Explanation:

Determining the pretax cost of debt is the first to do prior to ascertaining after tax cost of debt.

Pretax cost of debt  can be computed using the rate formula in excel.

=rate(nper,pmt,-pv,fv)

nper is the number of times the bond would coupon interest,hence paying coupon every six months for 20 years means 40 coupon payments

pmt is the semiannual coupon bondholders would received from the bond i.e $1000*7.25%*6/12=$36.25

pv is the current market price at $875

fv is the face value of $1000

=rate(40,36.25,-875,1000)=4.28%   semiannually

=4.28% *2=8.56% annually

after tax cost of debt=8.56%*(1-t),where t is the tax rate of 40% or 0.40

after tax cost of debt=8.56%*(1-0.4)=5.14%

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You are attempting to value a call option with an exercise price of $109 and one year to expiration. The underlying stock pays n
Ivenika [448]

Answer:

The value of the call option today is $14.29

Explanation:

The two-state stock pricing model is one that prices are based on the assumption that there is no arbitrage profit opportunity as well as the fact that the call option's value will be the present value(PV) of the expected future winnings for long call.

Now, value of the call option if the prices go up will be;

142 - 109 = $32

While if the prices go down, it will be;

76 - 109 = -$33

The call option in this case can only be utilized when the market value exceeds the exercise price.

Therefore, the expected winnings value after one year will be;

Value after one year = (32 × 0.5) + (0 × 0.5)

Value after one year = $16

We used 0 in the multiplication because the call wouldn't be utilized for when the prices go down.

one year from now the long call can be expected to earn $16 .

Thus, today the present value of this amount will be the price of the call option if we take into cognizance that here will be no arbitrage profit opportunity.

With risk-free rate of interest is 12%, we have;

PV = 16/1.12 = $14.29

3 0
3 years ago
Revenue or income, minus departmental expenses and undistributed expenses equals:
mixer [17]
Departmental income can be considered the contribution of revenues to profits because it is computed after deducting the direct costs of providing the service or product. Subtracting all of the undistributed operating expenses from total revenues results in gross operating profit per available room (GOPPAR).
8 0
4 years ago
Credit crunch definition.​
natta225 [31]

Answer:

A sudden sharp reduction in the availability of money or credit from banks and other lenders.

5 0
3 years ago
Pureform, Inc., manufactures a product that passes through two departments. Data for a recent month for the first department fol
8_murik_8 [283]

Explanation:

Equivalent units    

                                             Materials         Labor           Overhead  

Work in process inventory,       23,100.00        34,650.00   34,650.00  

beginning

Units started and completed  6,73,000.00    6,73,000.00  6,73,000.00  

Work in process inventory,     28,000.00     14,000.00           14,000.00  

ending

Equivalent units                   7,24,100.00      7,21,650.00     7,21,650.00  

First department cost per unit for first department    

                        Materials   Labor       Overhead        Total  

Current costs    11,94,765.00     2,88,660.00   5,05,155.00   19,88,580.00  

Equivalent units  7,24,100.00   7,21,650.00   7,21,650.00  

Cost per Equivalent unit   1.65      0.40           0.70         2.75  

The equivalent units for materials,labor and overhead are as follows:

                 Equivalent units

Materials   724,000

Labor         721,650

Overhead  721,650

In addition,the cost per unit for equivalent units are as follows:

Materials  1.65

Labor        0.40

Overhead 0.70

Total          2.75

7 0
3 years ago
After enrolling in the MBA program at Macatawa State University, Sheri began having second thoughts. Although MSU seemed to be a
Mila [183]

Answer:

b. Cognitive Dissonance.

Explanation:

Cognitive dissonance can be defined as the discomfort which is caused by the post-purchase conflict. When consumers buy something, they feel satisfied with their purchase, however, every purchase involves some trade-off and compromises. Customers certainly feel unhappy on acquiring the drawbacks of the bought product and losing the benefits of the products not purchased. Consequently, consumers feel some discomfort and post-purchase dissonance for almost every purchase they make. The same phenomenon can be observed in this scenario where Sheri has enrolled in the MBA program at Macatawa State University and feeling cognitive dissonance afterwards.

7 0
4 years ago
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