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anyanavicka [17]
3 years ago
8

Can someone please explain how i can solve this ...thank you very much

Mathematics
2 answers:
tresset_1 [31]3 years ago
7 0
Split it into  2 rectangles  by joining the iner ends of the 2 horizontal line segments of length 7 and 6

then you have 2 rectangles 1. length 11 and width 6
and the larger one length 24 and width 5

work out these 2 areas then add them
Darina [25.2K]3 years ago
6 0
You would add all the sides together.
You might be interested in
I NEED HELP PLSSSSSSSS
AVprozaik [17]

Answer:

X >>>>> Y

–1 >>>> 16

0 >>>>> 8

1 >>>>> 4

2 >>>>> 2

3 >>>>> 1

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question given above,

y = 8 × (½)ˣ

When x = –1, y =?

y = 8 × (½)ˣ

y = 8 × (½)¯¹

y = 8 × 2

y = 16

When x = 1, y =?

y = 8 × (½)ˣ

y = 8 × (½)¹

y = 8 × ½

y = 4

When x = 2, y =?

y = 8 × (½)ˣ

y = 8 × (½)²

y = 8 × ¼

y = 2

When x = 3, y =?

y = 8 × (½)ˣ

y = 8 × (½)³

y = 8 × ⅛

y = 1

SUMMARY:

X >>>>> Y

–1 >>>> 16

0 >>>>> 8

1 >>>>> 4

2 >>>>> 2

3 >>>>> 1

4 0
2 years ago
Are these correct? ILL MARKYOU AS BRAINLIEST
Soloha48 [4]

Answer:

It definitely seems right, so you should be good!

<h2><u></u></h2><h2><u>Hope This Helped!</u></h2>

3 0
3 years ago
Please help . I’ll mark you as brainliest if correct !!!!
pav-90 [236]
31-21=15
Answer: 15m
Answer check: 36+15=51✅
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A couple intends to have two children, and suppose that approximately 52% of births are male and 48% are female.
Pachacha [2.7K]

a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

p(m) = 0.52 (which corresponds to 52%)

While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

p(f) = 0.48 (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over  2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male  does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

p(mm)=p(m)\cdot p(m)

And substituting, we find

p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27

So, 27%.

b)

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

p(ff)

As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

p(ff)=p(f)\cdot p(f)

And substituting

p(f)=0.48

We find:

p(ff)=0.48\cdot 0.48=0.23

Which means 23%.

c)

In this case, we want to find the probability they have exactly one male and exactly one female child. This is given by the sum of two probabilities:

- The probability that 1st child is a male and 2nd child is a female, namely p(mf)

- The probability that 1st child is a female and 2nd child is a male, namely p(fm)

So, this probability is

p(mf Ufm)=p(mf)+p(fm)

We have:

p(mf)=p(m)\cdot p(f)=0.52\cdot 0.48=0.25

p(fm)=p(f)\cdot p(m)=0.48\cdot 0.52=0.25

Therefore, this probability is

p(mfUfm)=0.25+0.25=0.50

So, 50%.

Learn more about probabilities:

brainly.com/question/5751004

brainly.com/question/6649771

brainly.com/question/8799684

brainly.com/question/7888686

#LearnwithBrainly

5 0
3 years ago
How many times do you need to multiply by ten to get from 19.797 to 1979.7
borishaifa [10]
You need to multiply 19.797 by 10 two times to reach 1979.7
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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