Answer:
x = 3
Step-by-step explanation:
MQ : MN = 5:6
MP : MO = 5:6
MQ/MN = 5/6
Hence, MP/MO = 5/6
(5+x)/(6+(18/5)) = 5/6
5+x = (5/6)(48/5)
5+x = 8
x = 3
Here is your answer
A. 1,3,5,7,9,11,.....
REASON :
In an AP their is a common difference between two consecutive terms.
i.e. t2-t1=t3-t2=t4-t3=....= constant
The option A satisfies above condition.
HOPE IT IS USEFUL
Answer: 1 over 20
Step-by-step explanation: If the spinner has 5 parts to it at purple is one of those parts then the spinner has a 1/5 chance of it landing there.
If there are 4 cards and 1 of them are pink then there is a 1/4 chance of picking pink(if done randomly)
So if we mutiply 1/4 and 1/5, we get 1/20
That is how I arrived at my answer of 1 over 20
5,309 divided by 43 is equal to 123.4651162790698
