Answer:
32
Explanation:
Using Formula
Cost + (Cost*Margin) = Selling Price
Cost is not known...
Cost (1 + Margin) = Selling Price
Cost = Selling Price / 1 + Margin
Here, Margin is 0.45 of cost and selling price is 46.4
Cost = 44.4 / 1.45
Cost = 32
Answer:
113,000.
Explanation:
Let go through all the items to see whether we need to include them in the initial outlay or not.
(1) $100,000 worth of equipment => Yes
(2) Shipping will cost $5,000 and installation will cost $8,000 => Yes (Add to purchase price of equipment)
(3) Paid a management consultant $4,000 to analyze this project => No =>This is sunk cost (already incurred regardless of accept or reject the prject)
(4) Increase sales by $20,000 per year => No => under operating cashflow.
(5) $3,500 to train the employees to use the new equipment => No => under operating cashflow.
So, total initial outlay = 100,000 + 5,000 + 8,000 = 113,000.
Answer:
Explanation:
a. A temporary increase in government purchases would result in a reduction in savings, which would, in turn, lead to the implementation of higher taxes by the government so as to match prices and wages.
This would: make output to remain unchanged, real interest to increase and current price level to increase as well.
b. A reduction in expected inflation would lead to an increment in the demand for real money, as people do not expect inflation to increase for a while. Thus, more demand creates a reduction in the price level. Everything else remains unchanged. This would: make output remain unchanged, real interest remain unchanged and the current price level to decrease.
C. A temporary increase in labor supply would make more people have jobs and therefore more people can save. If more people save the interest rates are liable to decrease therefore money demand will increase. This would: make output to increase, real interest to decline and current price level to decrease.
d. An increase in the interest rate paid on money will lead to a higher demand for money. With an unchanged nominal money supply and higher money demand, the price would decline but everything remains unchanged. This would make: output remain unchanged, real interest remains unchanged and the current price level decrease.
Answer:
1. It is perfectly inelastic
Explanation:
Elasticity of Demand is the responsiveness of demand to price change.
- Elastic Demand > 1 ; implies demand changes proportionately more than price change
- Inelastic Demand < 1 ; implies demand changes proportionately less than price change
- Perfectly Elastic Demand = ∞ ; implies demand changes infinitely to price change, so the prices are constant
- Perfectly Inelastic Demand = 0 ; implies demand doesn't respond to price change, so quantity demanded is constant
Given : Seth body builder needs 12oz protein packet to 'feed his muscles' depicts that it is a necessity good to him. Being a necessity good, it would be demanded by Seth irrespective of price.
So, the demand is perfectly inelastic.
