Answer:
Line a and b
Step-by-step explanation:
You will have $24 824.94 eight years from now.
The formula for the future value (FV) of her investment is
FV =<em>C</em>(1 + <em>r</em>)^<em>n</em>
where <em>C</em> = her initial cash
<em>r</em> = the interest rate
<em>n</em> = the number of years
FV = $15 000(1.065)^8 = $24 824.94
Answer:
He needs 7 more consecutive successful first serves to raise his first serve percentage to 60%.
Step-by-step explanation:
After n consecutive serves, his total number of serves is going to be n+8, since he has already served 8 times. In the best case, his number of successful first serves is n+2.
His percentage of succesful first serves is the division of the number of succesful first serves divided by the total number of serves. So

We want
. So







He needs 7 more consecutive successful first serves to raise his first serve percentage to 60%.
Answer:
The Answer Will be For The Second Week Will Be 2weeks/14days , 3weeks/21days , 4weeks/28days , 5weeks/35days , 6weeks/42days
Step-by-step explanation:
You can either do 7 x 6 = 42
7 days in a week
6 weeks from days
or you can do 7 +7+7+7+7+7