Answer:
6 Cups
Step-by-step explanation:
1 pint is equal to 2 cups
Therefore 2 pints is equal to 4 cups.
You would need 3 pints for it to be equal to 6 cups.
Hope this helps :) If you have any more questions just ask :)
Answer:
1
2
− 1
9
8
Step-by-step explanation:
34. 65 = 3/4c - 7....add 7 to both sides
65 + 7 = 3/4c...simplify
72 = 3/4c...multiply both sides by 4/3, eliminating the 3/4 on the left
72 * 4/3 = c
288/3 = c
96 = c
36. -5/2 = 3/4z + 1/2 ...subtract 1/2 from both sides
-5/2 - 1/2 = 3/4z .... simplify
-6/2 = 3/4z ....reduce
-3 = 3/4z....multiply by 4/3. eliminating the 3/4 on the left
-3 * 4/3 = z
-12/3 = z
-4 = z
The domain of the function is all real numbers, the range of a function is y ≤ 4
<h3>What is a function?</h3>
It is defined as a special type of relationship, and they have a predefined domain and range according to the function every value in the domain is related to exactly one value in the range.
We have a function:
f(x) = –(x + 6)(x + 2)
If we plot this function on the coordinate plane, we will see it is a graph of a quadratic function.
Here the no other details are given.
But we can say:
- The domain of the function is all real numbers.
- The range of a function is y ≤ 4
- The x-axis intercept will be at (-6, 0) and (-2, 0).
Thus, the domain of the function is all real numbers, the range of a function is y ≤ 4
Learn more about the function here:
brainly.com/question/5245372
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