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4 years ago

Please help ;c i dont understand this

Mathematics

2 answers:

son4ous [18]4 years ago

7 0

This is equivalent to z ^(7/8)
hope this helps
make brainliest if someone else answers .
thanks

harina [27]4 years ago

6 0

It would be z^7/8. I hope this helps.

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Because of Theorem 5.47 any function that is continuous on (0, 1) but unbounded cannot be uniformly continuous there. Give an ex

almond37 [142]

Answer:

$f: (0,1) \to \mathbb{R}$

$f(x) = \sin(1/x)$

Step-by-step explanation:

f is continuous because is the composition of two continuous functions:

$g(x) = \sin(x)$ (it is continuous in the real numbers)

$h(x) = 1/x$ (it is continuous in the domain (0,1))

It is bounded because $-1 \leq \sin(\theta) \leq 1$

And it is not uniformly continuous because we can take $\varepsilon = 1$ in the definition. Let $\delta > 0$ we will prove that there exist a pair $x,y\in \mathbb{R}$ such that $|x-y|< \delta$ and $|f(x) -f(y)|> \varepsilon = 1$ .

Now, by the archimedean property we know that there exists a natural number N such that

$\frac{1}{N} < 2\pi \delta$

$\Rightarrow \frac{1}{2\pi N} < \delta$ .

Let's take $x = \frac{1}{2\pi N + \pi/2}$ and $y = \frac{1}{2\pi N + 3\pi/2}$ . We can see that

$|x-y| = \frac{1}{2\pi N + \pi/2}-\frac{1}{2\pi N + 3\pi/2}$

And also:

$|f(x)- f(y)| = |f(2\pi N + \pi/2) - f(2\pi N + 3\pi/2)| = |1 - (-1)| = 2 > \varepsilon$

And we conclude the proof.

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3 years ago

How to read a inch ruler

xxTIMURxx [149]

Answer: I am not sure how to answer this question besides the fact a inch ruler will have 12 inches. 12 inches equal 1 foot. Each foot is broken down into inches. Hope this helps :)

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

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3 years ago

Eight more than four times a number is 28.

Lunna [17]

4x+8=28, therefore it’s B

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3 years ago

(3 A sum of money doubles itself in 6 years. In how many years, it becomes 5 times?

elena-s [515]

Answer:

In 24 years.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the sum of money be 100 which amounts to 200 ( doubles itself ) in 6 years time. Interest on 100rs. Is 100. Putting the following in simple interest formula. You get :

$100=\dfrac{100\times R\times 6}{100}\\\\R=\dfrac{100}{6}$

Now when 100 will become 5 times i.e 500 the interest will be 400rs.

Putting in simple interest formula:

$400=\dfrac{\dfrac{100\times 100}{6T}}{100}\\\\T=\dfrac{2400}{100}\\\\=24\ yrs$

So, in 24 years, it will become 5 times.

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3 years ago