Answer:
We can find the individual probabilities:
And replacing we got:
![P(X \geq 5) = 1-[0.00114+0.009282+0.0358+0.0869+0.149]= 0.7178](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28X%20%5Cgeq%205%29%20%3D%201-%5B0.00114%2B0.009282%2B0.0358%2B0.0869%2B0.149%5D%3D%200.7178)
Step-by-step explanation:
Previous concepts
The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".
Solution to the problem
Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:
The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:
Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:
And we want to find this probability:

And we can use the complement rule:
We can find the individual probabilities:
And replacing we got:
![P(X \geq 5) = 1-[0.00114+0.009282+0.0358+0.0869+0.149]= 0.7178](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28X%20%5Cgeq%205%29%20%3D%201-%5B0.00114%2B0.009282%2B0.0358%2B0.0869%2B0.149%5D%3D%200.7178)
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
A=(3.14d^2)/4
A=0.785d^2
A=0.785(10^2)
A=78.5 yd^2
Answer:
-1/-6
Step-by-step explanation:
1/6 is equivalent to-1/-6
Your answer would be 122,400.
<em>To solve, follow these steps!! </em>First let's start with the price of the motorhome, 180,000. If it <em>depreciates, </em>that means it's going to lose value ever year.
It will depreciate 4% every year, so we need to find 4% of 180,000. You can just plug this into a calculator and get 7,200.
Next, it will depreciate for 8 years, so we multiply 7,200 x 8 and get 57,600. Lastly, we will subtract this from 180,000 and get 122,400.
Answer: 0.001 or 1/1000
Since it is a negative exponent and -3 so it is in the thousandths, so 1/1000 or 0.001.
Have a good day! : )