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4 years ago

Tony made $396 for 18 hours of work at the same rate how many hours would he have to work to make $198

Mathematics

1 answer:

tresset_1 [31]4 years ago

7 0

Answer:

9 hours.

Step-by-step explanation:

So, first, you have to determine what he makes per hour to make this as easy as possible. You need to first do 396 divided by 18, which gives you 22. He makes 22$ an hour. Next, now that you know what he makes, you can do 198 divided by 22, and that'll show how long he has to work to make that amount of money.

Hope this helped. Please mark this brainliest if you think this helped. Let me know if you need anymore help and I am more than happy.

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Misha Larkins [42]

Answer:

1. x = 22

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Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

Find the 7th term in the sequence -10,-6,-2,2...

jeyben [28]

1st term = -10

2nd term = -6

3rd term = -2

4th term = 2

5th term = 6

6th term = 10

7th term = 14

The reason how I got 14 for the 7th term is because, i added 4 to each term.

Hope this helps!

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3 years ago

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-1-4x+7x=1x+4x answer

wolverine [178]

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-1+-4x+7x=x+4x
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3x+-1=5x
3x-1=5x
3x-1-5x=5x-5x
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3 years ago

Write an equation in slope-intercept form for a line that passes through the point (1, 6) and

Mars2501 [29]

Answer:

y=2x+4

Step-by-step explanation:

If the line has a slope of two, that means it goes up 2 on the y axis for every 1 on the x axis. So, if it goes through (1,6), then you can subtract 1 from the x axis and two from the y axis to find the y intercept, (0,4).

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3 years ago

Stacy uses a spinner with six equal sections numbered 2, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 to play a game. Write a probability model for this ex

allsm [11]

Answer:

We estimate to have 8.33 times the number 6 in 50 trials.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let us consider a success to get a 6. In this case, note that the probability of having a 6 in one spin is 1/6. We can consider the number of 6's in 50 spins to be a binomial random variable. Then, let X to be the number of trials we get a 6 out of 50 trials. Then, we have the following model.

$P(X=k) = \binom{50}{k}(\frac{1}{6})^k(\frac{5}{6})^{50-k}$

We will estimate the number of times that she spins a 6 as the expected value of this random variable.

Recall that if we have X as a binomial random variable of n trials with a probability of success of p, then it's expected value is np.

Then , in this case, with n=50 and p=1/6 we expect to have $\frac{50}{6}$ number of times of having a 6, which is 8.33.

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3 years ago

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