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harkovskaia [24]
2 years ago
12

Question 3. Let f:X --> Y be a function. (a) Recall that for C CY, the inverse image of C is the set f-1(C) = {x E X|f(x) E C

}. Let A, B CY. Prove that f-1(ANB) Cf-1(A) n f-1(B). (b) Recall that for D C X, the image of D under f is the set f(D) = {f(x) E YX E X}. Let A, B C X. Prove that f(An B) c f(A)n F(B). Find an example of a function f and sets A and B such that f(ANB) = Ø but f(A) n f(B) + Ø.
Mathematics
1 answer:
professor190 [17]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

a) We want to prove that f^{-1}(A\cap B)\subset f^{-1}(A)\cap f^{-1}(B). Then, we can do that proving that every element of  f^{-1}(A\cap B) is an element of f^{-1}(A)\cap f^{-1}(B) too.

Then, suppose that x\in f^{-1}(A\cap B). From the definition of inverse image we know that f(x)\in A\cap B, which is equivalent to f(x)\in A and f(x)\in B. But, as f(x) \in A we can affirm that x\in f^{-1}(A) and, because  f(x)\in B we have x\in f^{-1}(B).

Therefore, x\inf^{-1}(A)\cap f^{-1}(B).

b) We want to prove that f(A\cap B) \subset f(A)\cap f(B). Here we will follow the same strategy of the above exercise.

Assume that y\in f(A\cap B). Then, there exists x\in A\cap B such that y=f(x). But, as x\in A\cap B we know that x\in A and x\in B. From this, we deduce f(x)=y\in f(A) and f(x)=y\in f(B). Therefore, y\in f(A)\cap f(B).

c) Consider the constant function f(x)=1 for every real number x. Take the sets A=(0,1) and B=(1,2).

Notice that A\cap B = (0,1)\cap (1,2)=Ø, so f(A\cap B)=Ø. But f(A) = \{1\} and f(B) = \{1\}, so f(A)\cap f(B) =\{1\}.

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Answer: 120

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Explanation:

We have seven slots to fill. Let's call the slots A, B, C, D, E, F, G

There are 10 choices for slot A

There are 9 choices for slot B

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There are 6 choices for slot E

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We count down because each previous slot reduces the pool to choose from. Multiply those values out: 10*9*8*7*6*5*4 = 604800

Now divide that result by 5040. Why 5040? Because this is the number of ways to arrange 7 people within a single grouping. Note how 7! = 7*6*5*4*3*2*1 = 5040. W're dividing because order does not matter for any committee.

So we have 604800/5040 = 120 which is the answer we want

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Side note: We could use the alternate route of the nCr combination formula

nCr = (n!)/(r!*(n-r)!)

where n = 10 and r = 7


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