Answer:
The correct option is D,credit to Preferred Stock for $1,600,000 and Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par-Preferred Stock for $320,000
Explanation:
The total par value of the preferred stock issue is $100 multiplied by 16,000 which gives $1,600,000 while the remaining $20 per share multiplied by 16,000 that gave rise $320,000 goes to the credit of paid-in capital in excess of par-preferred stock account.
Option A is wrong because the preferred has a par value of $100 hence the total cash proceeds cannot be posted to preferred stock account alone.
Option B is wrong because the excess of $20 per share cannot be posted to retained earnings since it is net income
In <u>modifying the market</u>, Johnson and Johnson increased the consumption of the current product.
<h3>What is market modification?</h3>
Market mofification can be defined as the way in the a manufaturer target the market so as to attract potentials customers.
Most producer tend to make use of market modication as a marketing strategy so as to have more advantage over other competitors by reaching their competitors customers and to as well increase sales.
Therefore in <u>modifying the market</u>, Johnson and Johnson increased the consumption of the current product.
Learn more about market modification here:brainly.com/question/27093440
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Step one investigate / question to figure out the problem. Step two once you figure out the problem brainstorm solutions \ enforce. Step three apply the solution in your work facility.
Answer:
$8,013
Explanation:
The computation of the amount of the depreciation expense is shown below:
The net income is
= An addition to retained earnings + cash dividend paid
= $4,221 + $469
= $4,690
Now the earning before tax
= (Net income) ÷ (1 - tax rate)
= ($4,690) ÷(1 - 0.21)
= $5,937
Now the earning before tax and interest is
= $5,937 + $1,300
= $7,237
So, the depreciation expense is
= $30,600 - $15,350 - $7,237
= $8,013
Answer: $8.81
Explanation:
To solve this, add the present values of the dividends from years 3, 4 and 5 and then add the present value of the terminal value of the stock at year 5.
Year 3 dividend = $0.50
Year 4 dividend = 0.50 * (1 + 49%) = $0.745
Year 5 dividend = 0.745 * 1.49 = $1.11005
= Dividend in year 3 / (1 + required rate of return)³ + Dividend in year 4 / (1 + required rate of return)⁴ + Dividend in year 5 / (1 + required rate of return)⁵ + (Dividend in year 5 * (1 + growth rate) / ( required rate of return - growth rate ) ) / (1 + required rate of return)⁵
= 0.5 / 1.16³ + 0.745/1.16⁴ + 1.11005/1.16⁵ + ( 1.11005 / (16% - 9%)) / 1.16⁵
= $8.81
