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inessss [21]
3 years ago
7

I need help. This just doesn't make sense

Mathematics
1 answer:
djyliett [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

x = 4

Step-by-step explanation:

BE bisects AD and AC, hence is a mid- line segment. Hence BE is half of CD

CD = 12 ⇒ BE = 6, that is

x + 2 = 6 ( subtract 2 from both sides )

x = 4 → C


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A typical credit card company charges 18% annual interest,
AnnZ [28]

Answer:

$1,519

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that :

Balance = principal = $520

Time (t) = 6 years

Annual. Interest rate (r) = 18% = 0.18

Using the compound interest formula:

A = P(1 + r/n)^nt

n = number of times interest is applied per period ; A = final amount

Since interest is compounded monthly, n = 12

A = 520(1 + 0.18/12)^(12 * 6)

A = 520(1 + 0.015)^72

A = 520(1.015)^72

A = 520(2.9211579)

A = 1519.0021

Hence, final amount = $1519

3 0
2 years ago
Randall wants to buy a pizza. He can select from 5 different sizes, 4 types of crust, and 12 toppings for his pizza. Which of th
hjlf

Answer:

240

Step-by-step explanation:

5x4x12=240

if you multiply the amount of sizes he can get times the amount of crust sizes he can get you get the pizza it's self (20)

now including the toppings (12) this means 20x12 gets you the amount of toppings on those induviduale pizza's.

Hope this helps!

Brainliest please!

Please fully rate!

Have a great day!

8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
colleen purchased a large bag of apple. She used 1/2 of them to make applesauce. of those she had left,she used 3/4 to make an a
Brut [27]
I think the answer is 4 1/4
5 0
3 years ago
If you rolled a die, what is the probability that you would roll a 1 or a 2? Give your answer as a simplified fraction. Enter th
katrin [286]
Since there are 6 possible results when rolling a die, each number has a 1 in 6 chance that it will be rolled.
1 and 2 are two possible results, so there is a 2 in 6 chance they will be rolled. As a fraction:
2/6
simplified:
1/3
6 0
2 years ago
The force of gravity on Mars is different than on Earth. The function of the same situation on Mars would be represented by the
sweet-ann [11.9K]

Answer:

If thrown up with the same speed, the ball will go highest in Mars, and also it would take the ball longest to reach the maximum and as well to return to the ground.

Step-by-step explanation:

Keep in mind that the gravity on Mars; surface is less (about just 38%) of the acceleration of gravity on Earth's surface. Then when we use the kinematic formulas:

v=v_0+a\,*\,t\\y-y_0=v_0\,* t + \frac{1}{2} a\,\,t^2

the acceleration (which by the way is a negative number since acts opposite the initial velocity and displacement when we throw an object up on either planet.

Therefore, throwing the ball straight up makes the time for when the object stops going up and starts coming down (at the maximum height the object gets) the following:

v=v_0+a\,*\,t\\0=v_0-g\,*\,t\\t=\frac{v_0}{t}

When we use this to replace the 't" in the displacement formula, we et:

y-y_0=v_0\,* t + \frac{1}{2} a\,\,t^2\\y-y_0=v_0\,(\frac{v_0}{g} )-\frac{g}{2} \,(\frac{v_0}{g} )^2\\y-y_0=\frac{1}{2} \frac{v_0^2}{g}

This tells us that the smaller the value of "g", the highest the ball will go (g is in the denominator so a small value makes the quotient larger)

And we can also answer the question about time, since given the same initial velocity v_0 , the smaller the value of "g", the larger the value for the time to reach the maximum, and similarly to reach the ground when coming back down, since the acceleration is smaller (will take longer in Mars to cover the same distance)

3 0
3 years ago
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