Answer:
The correct answer is option B.
Explanation:
A price elasticity of demand is always negative for normal goods. It indicates that the price increase causes demand to fall.
The price elasticity less than 1 means demand is less elastic or inelastic. In other words, a change in price will lead to a smaller change in demand.
Similarly, a price elasticity greater than 1 means demand is highly elastic. So a change in price will lead to a greater change in demand.
Since, afternoon shows have less elastic or inelastic demand, the theatre should charge higher price for them.
While, the evening shows are highly elastic so the theatre should charge lower price.
In this way theatre can maximize total revenue.
If the price elasticity of demand for a product is -2.5, then a price cut from $2.00 to $1.80 will <u>increase </u>the quantity demanded by about <u>2.5%</u>.
Price elasticity of call for is a measurement of the trade in the intake of a product on the subject of exchange in its price. Expressed mathematically, it's miles: charge Elasticity of demand = percent trade-in quantity Demanded / percentage trade-in rate.
we are saying a great is price elastic whilst growth in prices causes a bigger % fall in demand. e.g. if fee rises 20% and demand falls 50%, the PED = -2.five. Examples consist of Heinz soup.
Learn more about Price elasticity here: brainly.com/question/24384825
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Empire has a credit balance of $750 in its allowance for doubtful accounts. the balance in the accounts receivable account is $80,500, with $2,415 estimated to be uncollectible after aging the accounts. under the balance sheet approach, the debt to bad-debt expense will be $ 1,665.
Answer:
1.763
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
Beta of $40 million portfolio = 1
Risk-free rate = 4.25%
Market risk premium = 6.00%
Expected return = 13.00%
Now,
Expected return = Risk-free rate + ( Beta × Market risk premium )
13.00% = 4.25% + ( Beta × 6.00% )
or
Beta × 6.00% = 8.75%
or
Beta = 1.458
Now,
Beta of the total profile should be equal to 1.458
Thus,
Weight of $40 million portfolio = $40 million ÷ [ $40 million + $60 million]
= 0.4
Weight of $60 million portfolio = $60 million ÷ [ $40 million + $60 million]
= 0.6
therefore,
the average beta
1.458 = 0.4 × 1 + 0.6 × ( Beta of $60 million portfolio )
or
1.058 = 0.6 × ( Beta of $60 million portfolio )
or
Beta of $60 million portfolio = 1.763
