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Sophie [7]
3 years ago
12

F. A bag contains 3 red, 4 blue, 3 green, and 5 yellow marbles. What is the probability of

Mathematics
1 answer:
umka21 [38]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

you first add up the marbles together. 3 + 4 + 3 +.5 = 15. Then you take the amount of green marbles their are, and make a fraction: 3/15. Then you remove one without putting it back, which is green, so you have 1 less total and one less green marbles, and you turn that into a fraction: 2/14.

First Pick: 3/15 chance of getting green

Second Pick: 2/14 chance of getting green

Then. You divide the first number by the second one.

3 / 15 = 0.2

2 / 14 = 0.142

Then to turn into percentage you move the decimal over two spots and drop the 0 and add a percentage sign:

20%

14.2% (Round Up Percentage) 15%

Which means that:

20% Probabiltiy for first pick

15% Probability for second pick

____________________________________________________________   I hope this helps. If it is incorrect, comment that, and I will see what U messed up. I hope I helped. :D

You might be interested in
Ehich of thr following expressions has a Simplified value of 3A -2?
LenaWriter [7]
The answer is B. -a+4+5a-a-6

3 0
2 years ago
In circle O, RT and SU are diameters.
nataly862011 [7]

In circle O, RT and SU are diameters. mArc R V = mArc V U = 64°. Thus, option C is correct.

Given that:

mArc R V = mArc V U,

Angle S O R = 13 x degrees

Angle T O U = 15 x - 8 degrees

<h3>How to calculate the angle TOU ?</h3>

∠SOR = ∠TOU  (Vertically opposite angles are equal).

Therefore:

13 x = 15x - 8

Subtracting 13x from both sides

13x - 13x = 15x - 8 - 13x

0 = 15x - 13x - 8

2x - 8 = 0

Adding 8 to both sides:

2x - 8 + 8 = 0 + 8

2x = 8

2x/2 = 8/2  

x = 4

∠SOR = 13x

= 13(4)

= 52°

∠TOU = 15x - 8

= 15(4) - 8

= 60 - 8

= 52°

Let a = mArc R V = mArc V U

Therefore:

mArc R V + mArc V U + ∠TOU = 180 (sum of angles on a straight line)

Substituting:

a + a + 52 = 180

2a = 180-52

2a = 128

a = 128/2

a= 64°

mArc R V = mArc V U = 64°

In circle O, RT and SU are diameters. mArc R V = mArc V U = 64°. Thus, option C is correct.

Learn more about angles here:

brainly.com/question/2882938

#SPJ1

6 0
1 year ago
Charlotte has been saving up to buy a home gym so she can work out at home without having to pay for a
Y_Kistochka [10]

The 15% discount for home gym, and the $889 cost of the Flex 3,000 gives;

1. f(x) = 0.85•x + 139.95

2.

  1. With the deal, Charlotte's before tax cost is $895.6
  2. The deal cost is more than the initial price making the deal not worth it.

3. The domain is; 889 < x < ∞

The range is; 895.6 ≤ f(x) ‹ ∞

<h3>How can the function notation for the cost be found?</h3>

1. The percentage discount Charlotte gets = 15% = 0.15

Cost of the 6 months subscription = $139.95

f(x) = Final before tax

x = Price of the home gym equipment

Therefore;

Given the 15% off, we get;

f(x) = (1-0.15)•x + 139.95

Which gives;

  • f(x) = 0.85•x + 139.95

2. Question 1

Cost of the Flex3000, <em>x</em> = $889

Therefore;

f(889) = 0.85 × 889 + 139.95 = 895.6

Charlotte's before–tax cost with the deal is therefore, $895.6

Given that the workout channel holds no value to Charlotte, and the deal cost is higher than the initial cost, it isn't worth it for her to pay for the subscription to get the 15% discount

3. The domain if the Awesome Flex is the cheapest option, is the possible initial price of the home gym equipment.

The domain is therefore;

  • 889 < x < ∞

The range is the possible values of the before tax cost.

The range is therefore;

  • 895.6 ≤ f(x) ‹ ∞

Learn more about writing equations here:

brainly.com/question/11331093

#SPJ1

5 0
1 year ago
Janson has quarters and dimes in his pocket. he counted 42 coins that added up to $7.50
vlada-n [284]

Answer:

28 quarters and 5 dimes

7(Q)+5(D)

7(4)+5(10)

28Q      50D          Q=quarters  D=dimes

it would be more efficient to do the substitution method bc its faster and easier

7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The rectangular bar is connected to the support bracket with a 10-mm-diameter pin. The bar width is w = 70 mm and the bar thickn
german

Answer:

P_max = 9.032 KN

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

- Bar width and each side of bracket w = 70 mm

- Bar thickness and each side of bracket t = 20 mm

- Pin diameter d = 10 mm

- Average allowable bearing stress of (Bar and Bracket) T = 120 MPa

- Average allowable shear stress of pin S = 115 MPa

Find:

The maximum force P that the structure can support.

Solution:

- Bearing Stress in bar:

                                       T = P / A

                                       P = T*A

                                       P = (120) * (0.07*0.02)

                                       P = 168 KN

- Shear stress in pin:

                                        S = P / A

                                        P = S*A

                                        P = (115)*pi*(0.01)^2 / 4

                                        P = 9.032 KN

- Bearing Stress in each bracket:

                                       T = P / 2*A

                                       P = T*A*2

                                       P = 2*(120) * (0.07*0.02)

                                       P = 336 KN

- The maximum force P that this structure can support:

                                      P_max = min (168 , 9.032 , 336)

                                      P_max = 9.032 KN

3 0
3 years ago
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