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Aleonysh [2.5K]
3 years ago
11

Which of the following function types exhibit the end behavior f(x)-->0 as x --> -infinity?

Mathematics
1 answer:
ipn [44]3 years ago
5 0
Let's consider the functions one by one.

i) y=x^n,

x --> -infinity means that x is a very very small negative number. To model it in our mind let's think of -10^{15}. This number to an even power becomes 10^{30}, 10^{60}... etc.

Indeed, we can see that the smaller the x, the greater the value x^n. In fact, as x --> -infinity,  f(x)-->+infinity.

ii)
y=x, 

this clearly means that the behaviors of x and y are identical.

As x --> -infinity, y --> -infinity as well.


iii) y=|x|,

We can think of x --> -infinity, again, as a very very small number, like -10^{15}. For this value of x, y is |-10^{15}|, that is 10^{15}.

Indeed, the smaller the x, the greater the y. As in the function in part (i), as x --> -infinity,  f(x)-->+infinity.

iv) 

y=1/x

consider the values of y for the following values of x:

for x=-10, -100, -1000, y is respectively -0.1, -0.01, -0.001.

We can see that the smaller the x, the closer y gets to 0.

Thus, <span>f(x)-->0 as x --> -infinity
</span>
v) n'th root of x in not defined for negative x, when n is even.

vi) y=b^x, b>0

Here note that b cannot be equal to 1, otherwise the function is not exponential.

Let b=5, consider the values of y for the following values of x:

for x=-10, -100, -1000, y is respectively \displaystyle{ \frac{1}{5^{10}},  \frac{1}{5^{100}}, \frac{1}{5^{1000}}.

That is, the smaller the value of x, the closer y gets to 0.

Thus, <span>f(x)-->0 as x --> -infinity</span>
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Answer:

d = \frac{78.24 -66.25}{\sqrt{\frac{7^2 +7^2}{2}}}= 1.713

For the interpretation we consider a value for d small is is between 0-0.2, medium if is between 0.2-0.8 and large if is higher than 0.8.

And on this case 1.713>0.8 so we have a large effect size

This value of d=1.713 are telling to us that the two groups differ by 1.713 standard deviation and we will have a significant difference between the two means.

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The Effect size is a "quantitative measure of the magnitude of the experimenter effect. "

The Cohen's d effect size is given by  the following formula:

d = \frac{\bar X_1 -\bar X_2}{\sqrt{\frac{s^2_1 +s^2_2}{2}}}

Solution to the problem

And for this case we can assume:

\bar X_1 =78.24 the mean for females

\bar X_2 =66.25 the mean for males

s_1 = s_2= 7 represent the deviations for both groups

And if we replace we got:

d = \frac{78.24 -66.25}{\sqrt{\frac{7^2 +7^2}{2}}}= 1.713

For the interpretation we consider a value for d small is is between 0-0.2, medium if is between 0.2-0.8 and large if is higher than 0.8.

And on this case 1.713>0.8 so we have a large effect size

This value of d=1.713 are telling to us that the two groups differ by 1.713 standard deviation and we will have a significant difference between the two means.

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have a nice day :D
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