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zysi [14]
3 years ago
11

Division A reported income from operations of $975,000 and total service department charges of $675,000. As a result, a.consolid

ated net income was $300,000 b.the gross profit margin was $300,000 c.income from operations before service department charges was $1,650,000 d.net income was $300,000
Business
1 answer:
alexgriva [62]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

c.income from operations before service department charges was $1,650,000

Explanation:

We can see from the information in the question, that income from operations and service department charges sum a total of $1,650,000

Gross income before service department charges = $975,000 + $675,000

                                                                                    = $1,650,000

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Luzadis Company makes furniture using the latest automated technology. The company uses a job-order costing system and applies m
zmey [24]

Answer:

Answer:

1. Overhead over applied= $521,000

2. Factory Overhead   Dr.     $ 521,000

Cost Of Goods Sold Cr.    $ 521,000

3. Work in Process,  (ratio)   $521,000 *    7%=  36,470

Finished Goods,              $521,000   *     19%=  98,990

Cost of Goods Sold       $521,000    *    74%=  385,540

Total                        $521,000     100%

4. Difference between the two CGS= $ 136,060

Explanation:

Predetermined Overhead  Costs $1,152,000

Estimated activity level of 72,000 machine-hours

Overhead rate= $ 1152,000/ 72,000= $ 16 per hour

Manufacturing overhead cost $551,000

Actual hours = 67,000

Overhead applied to WIP = 67,000 * 16= $ 1072,000

Overhead over applied= $ 1072,000 - $551000= $521,000

Part 2:

Factory Overhead   Dr.     $ 521,000

Cost Of Goods Sold Cr.    $ 521,000

The Cost of Goods Sold is credited and Factory overhead is debited.

Part 3:

Suppose the overhead is applied in the following ratio

Work in Process,  (ratio)   $37,520          7%   (37520/536,00*100%)

Finished Goods,              $101,840         19%      (101840/536,00*100%)

Cost of Goods Sold       $396, 640        74%     (396,640/536,00*100%)

Total                        $536,000     100%

The  overhead over applied  would be allocated in the following way applying the same ratio as determined above.

Work in Process,  (ratio)   $521,000 *    7%=  36,470

Finished Goods,              $521,000   *     19%=  98,990

Cost of Goods Sold       $521,000    *    74%=  385,540

Total                        $521,000     100%

Part 4:

Cost of Goods Sold ( overhead applied of $396, 640) $1,472,600

Less    Overhead   overapplied      $ 521,000

CGS = $ 951,000

Cost of Goods Sold (overhead applied to WIP & FG) $1,472,600

Less   Overapplied Overhead $ 385,540

CGS=  $ 1087,060

Difference between the two CGS = $ 1087,060- $ 951,000= $ 136,060

5 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is one way that technology can improve productivity?
mote1985 [20]

Answer:

machines

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
4. Study Question #4 Ch 7. Why are developing nations concerned with commodity price stabilization? Check all that apply. Improv
iragen [17]

Answer:

Developing nations are concerned with commodity price stabilization because of the following reasons

  1. There are high price elasticity of supply and demand for many commodities
  2. Developing economies are often highly dependent on the export of just one or a few commodities.

Explanation:

In recent decades there has been growing concern about the sharp fluctuations of primary product prices, the effects of those fluctuations on particular groups of producers and particular countries, and the measures which might be taken to reduce or offset the fluctuations.

Producing countries have been dominated by proposals for stabilizing world prices of commodities, in particular via the establishment of a “Common Fund” within the framework of UNCTAD's Integrated Program for Commodities.

However, developing nations are concerned with commodity price stabilization because of the two reasons provided above which could result in inflation and deflation.

7 0
4 years ago
Diehl Cleaners has the following balance sheet items. Classify each item as an asset, liability, or owner’s equity. Accounts pay
Strike441 [17]

Answer:

Assets : Cash, Accounts receivable, Equipment

Liabilities : Salaries and wages payable,  Accounts payable,  Notes payable

Owners Equity : Owner’s capital

Explanation:

Assets are valuable things owned by a business, to which firm's present or future monetary economic benefit can be entitled.

Cash , Account receivables (from debtors who owe money to us) , Equipments are all beneficial ownerships and hence are Assets.

Liabilities are financial burden of the business, the amount business owes to others.

Salaries and wages payable, Accounts payable (from creditors to whom we owe money), Notes payable are all financial obligations to be fulfilled by business - so are liabilities of business.

Owners Equity are the assets of business which have been bought in by the Entrepreneur as 'Capital' in the firm.

4 0
4 years ago
Which of the following statements is(are) false regarding the direct method of allocating service department costs?
QveST [7]

Correct Question:  Which of the following statements is (are) false regarding the direct method of allocating service department costs?

(A) The selection of an allocation base in the direct method is easier than the selection of an allocation base in the step method.

(B) Once an allocation is made from a service department using the direct method, no further allocations are made back to that department.

A. Only A is false.

B. Only B is false.

C. Neither A nor B is false.

D. Both A and B are false.

Answer:

A, Only A is false

Explanation:

The selection of an allocation base in the direct method is easier than the selection of an allocation base is false in that allocation base in step method allocates support costs to the support departments and the operating departments that recognise the services provided betwenn thos suport departments.

Cheers.

8 0
3 years ago
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