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anzhelika [568]

4 years ago

9

Is 1/5 equivalent to 2/10

2 answers:

meriva4 years ago

7 0

Yes, it is.

<u>1</u> x 2 = <u>2
</u>5 x 2 = 10

The numerator and denominator have to lose/get the same value. For example, you cannot do 1 x 3 =3 and 5 x 2 = 10. In this case I am using the problem above.

dimaraw [331]4 years ago

4 0

Yes it is,it can simplified

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Can someone help me? Brainliest + Points!

iris [78.8K]

Answer:

D. $\frac{2}{5}$

Step-by-step explanation:

Since we know that the odds of an events can be found by dividing the probability that an event will occur by the probability that the event will not occur.

$\text{Odds of an event}=\frac{\text{Probability that event will occur}}{\text{Probability that event will not occur}}$

Probability of an event not occurring can be found by subtracting probability of the event occurring from 1.

$\text{Odds of an event}=\frac{\text{Probability that event will occur}}{1-\text{Probability that event will occur} }$

We have been given that probability of an event is 2/7.

Upon substituting our given values in above formula we will get,

$\text{Odds of the given event}=\frac{\frac{2}{7}}{1-\frac{2}{7}} }$

$\text{Odds of the given event}=\frac{\frac{2}{7}}{\frac{7-2}{7}} }$

$\text{Odds of the given event}=\frac{\frac{2}{7}}{\frac{5}{7}} }$

$\text{Odds of the given event}=\frac{2}{7}\times \frac{7}{5}$

$\text{Odds of the given event}=\frac{2}{5}$

Therefore, the odds of the same event are $\frac{2}{5}$ and option D is the correct choice.

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Mary can travel 174 miles in 3 hours.at this rate how far can she travel in 7 hours

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