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Pachacha [2.7K]
3 years ago
6

YES OR NO QUESTION PLEASE HELP ILL GIVE BRAINLIEST

Mathematics
1 answer:
Viefleur [7K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

No

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is no, because each value in the domain is associated with exactly one point in the codomain, but a line passing through the circle generally intersects the circle at two points.

This sort of thing is inconvenient, because circles are very important in geometry. Sometimes the points of a circle are described by a relation, given by (x−a)2+(y−b)2=r2, where (a,b) is the center and r is the radius. Because of the squares, there can be two different values of y that make the relation true for various values of x, so the graph of the relation is a circle. I will not suggest taking my answer for i have just started learning functions

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1. (a) Use the integral test to show that P[infinity] n=1 1/n4 converges. (b) Find the 10th partial sum, s10, of the series P[in
scZoUnD [109]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

a) \int\limits^{\infty} _1 {\frac{1}{n^4} } \, dn\\ =\frac{n^{-3} }{-3}

Substitute limits to get

= \frac{1}{3}

Thus converges.

b) 10th partial sum =

\int\limits^{10} _1 {\frac{1}{n^4} } \, dn\\ =\frac{n^{-3} }{-3}

=\frac{-1}{3} (0.001-1)\\= 0.333

c) Z [infinity] n+1 1 /x ^4 dx ≤ s − sn ≤ Z [infinity] n 1 /x^ 4 dx, (1)

where s is the sum of P[infinity] n=1 1/n4 and sn is the nth partial sum of P[infinity] n=1 1/n4 .

(question is not clear)

3 0
3 years ago
Sin(2/3+3/5) help please
pav-90 [236]

Answer:

Answer ≈ 0.022

Step-by-step explanation:

For these types of questions with sin cos or tan, you will need to use a calculator. There is no other way as far as I have seen on the internet to solve this type of problem. Anyways, what you have to do is take your calculator and put in:

sin

sin(2/3+3/5)  exactly like that

and the calculator will give this to you:

0.022105703 which you can then round up.

I hope this answer helped you out. If it did I would greatly appreciate it if you could check out my channel The Game Rater(or Nitro Studios the name might change). I would really appreciate that. Thanks.

<h2><em>-Nitroid444</em></h2>
8 0
3 years ago
Please help me with the two column proof<br>Part 2B<br><br>​
Semenov [28]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

∠BCA = ∠DCE             vertical angles

∠BAC = ∠DEC             alternate interior angles

    BC = CD                  definition of bisect

ΔABC = ΔEDC              AAS

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Can someone please answer number 14 a, b and c? Thank you.
Harrizon [31]
For a, we have 42in/9ft. Since 12 inches are in 1 foot, we can multiply it by that to get (42in/9ft)*(1ft/12inches) = 42/108. We put the foot on the top of 1ft/12in to cancel them out. Since 2 goes into both 42 and 108, we divide it by 2/2 to get 26/54. Repeating the process again, we get 13/27

If we were to say that there are 12 inches in a foot and therefore divide 42 by 12 (to get 42 inches in feet), we'd get the same answer due to that 1 foot is equal to 12 inches and if you were to divide it by 1 foot/12 inches, since they are the same thing, you get the same answer

For c, since it may be hard to get (42/12)/9, it could just be easier to have 42/(9*12)=42/108
5 0
3 years ago
Solve each quadratic equation. 4x²=100
liraira [26]
4x^2=100
Square root 4x^2=square root 100
4x=plus or minus 10
4x/4=plus or minus 10/4
X= -2.5, x= 2.5
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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