(7,6) is the answer of your question
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The correlation coefficient is a number that indicates the direction
and closeness of points of a line of best of fit.
So it tells us two things.
It tells us the direction of the line of best fit
and it tells us the closeness of the points.
Usually, anything between -0.9 and -0.6 has a moderate negative correlation. If you look at this on a graph, you will notice that the points definitely resemble a line so we say it's moderate.
It will be a negative correlation because the slope is negative.
Since there is nothing on the left side of the equation besides the absolute value, you have to take 6m out of the absolute value and create 2 separate equations. These 2 equation will be 6m = 42 and 6m = -42.
You solve the equations normally:
6m = 42 6m = -42 (inverse to get m by itself, do on both sides)
/6 /6 /6 /6
m = 7 m = -7
The answer is a solution set:
[7, -7]
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
So when x and y, vary inversely, it means that the product of x and y will remain constant such that: 
. This means that the function can be defined as 
by dividing both sides by x. In this case x=12, and y=8, this means the constant is equal to 12 * 8 which is 96. So we have the equation: 
, which can be defined as
Answer: See explanation
Step-by-step explanation:
a. The deposit
= 15% × $2975
= 15/100 × $2975
= 0.15 × $2975
= $446.25
b. The hire purchase price
Outstanding balance = $2975 - $446.25 = $2528.75
20% of outstanding balance
= 20% × $2528.75
= 0.2 × $2528.75
= $505.75
Hire purchase price
= $2975 + $505.75
= $3480.75
c. The difference the hire purchase price and cash price
= $3480.75 - $2975
= $505.75
d. The difference as a percentage of the cash price.
= ($505.75 / $2975) × 100
= 0.17 × 100
= 17%
