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san4es73 [151]
3 years ago
13

PLEASE HELP ASAP!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

Mathematics
2 answers:
timurjin [86]3 years ago
8 0
The narrowest parabola will be the one with the greatest magnitude of acceleration...y, dy/dx, d2y/dx2 for each are:

-2x^2, -4x, -4

-x^2, -2x, -2

x^2, 2x, 2  and your fourth equation is the same as the third?

From what you have the first equation, -2x^2, will be the narrowest because it has the greatest magnitude of acceleration |-4|=4


Dmitrij [34]3 years ago
6 0
It would be the one with the number that is furthest away from 0 either negative or positive.  in this case it would be A
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PLZ HELP ill GIVE BRAINIESt!!!!20 Points
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A. more homework better scores
b. about 60 score
c. standard score
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3 years ago
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5. $120 for 15 books A. $8−−−−1 book B. 1 book−−−−$8 C. $15−−−−1 book D. 1 book−−−−$15
ddd [48]

Answer:

it should be A and if it is not a then b but I think A

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3 years ago
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A player of a video game is confronted with a series of four opponents and an 80% probability of defeating each opponent. Assume
mixer [17]

Answer:

(a) 0.4096

(b) 0.64

(c) 0.7942

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability that the player wins is,

P(W)=0.80

Then the probability that the player losses is,

P(L)=1-P(W)=1-0.80=0.20

The player is playing the video game with 4 different opponents.

It is provided that when the player is defeated by an opponent the game ends.

All the possible ways the player can win is: {L, WL, WWL, WWWL and WWWW)

(a)

The results from all the 4 opponents are independent, i.e. the result of a game played with one opponent is unaffected by the result of the game played with another opponent.

The probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is,

P (Player defeats all 4 opponents) = P(W)\times P(W)\times P(W)\times P(W)=[P(W)]^{4} =(0.80)^{4}=0.4096

Thus, the probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is 0.4096.

(b)

The probability that the player defeats at least two opponents in a game is,

P (Player defeats at least 2) = 1 - P (Player losses the 1st game) - P (Player losses the 2nd game) = 1-P(L)-P(WL)

                                    =1-(0.20)-(0.80\times0.20)\\=1-0.20-0.16\\=0.64

Thus, the probability that the player defeats at least two opponents in a game is 0.64.

(c)

Let <em>X</em> = number of times the player defeats all 4 opponents.

The probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is,

P(WWWW) = 0.4096.

Then the random variable X\sim Bin(n=3, p=0.4096)

The probability distribution of binomial is:

P(X=x)={n\choose x}p^{x} (1-p)^{n-x}

The probability that the player defeats all the 4 opponents at least once is,

P (<em>X</em> ≥ 1) = 1 - P (<em>X</em> < 1)

             = 1 - P (<em>X</em> = 0)

             =1-[{3\choose 0}(0.4096)^{0} (1-0.4096)^{3-0}]\\=1-[1\times1\times (0.5904)^{3}\\=1-0.2058\\=0.7942

Thus, the probability that the player defeats all the 4 opponents at least once is 0.7942.

3 0
3 years ago
Monica bought a new jacket that was 40% off the original price if the amount of the discount was $24,what was the original price
stich3 [128]

Answer:

To get a discount price from full price you would multiply the full price by the discount (in this case .40) and to get the full price from discount price you would divide the discount price by 1- discount

So 24/.6= 40

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
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Does anyone know this please help
d1i1m1o1n [39]

Answer:

b.12/25

c.4/15

d.8/15

e.6/12

2a.15/24=5/8

b.20/40=1/2

7 0
3 years ago
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